Nursing Elites

1. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Decrease the heparin rate.
• B. Increase the heparin rate.
• C. No change to the heparin rate.
• D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

2. The provider requests the nurse to start an infusion of an inotropic agent on a client. How should the nurse explain the action of these drugs to the client and spouse?

• A. It constricts vessels, improving blood flow.
• B. It dilates vessels, which lessens the work of the heart.
• C. It increases the force of the heart's contractions.
• D. It slows the heart rate down for better filling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An inotropic agent is a medication that increases the force of the heart's contractions, which helps improve cardiac output. Choice A and B are incorrect as inotropic agents do not constrict or dilate vessels. Choice D is also incorrect as inotropic agents do not slow down the heart rate but rather enhance the heart's contractility.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being taught by a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid smoking to prevent further damage to my lungs.
• B. I will eat smaller, more frequent meals to avoid feeling bloated.
• C. I will exercise every day to improve my strength and endurance.
• D. I will drink plenty of fluids to help thin my mucus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. While exercise is important for clients with COPD, daily exercise may be too strenuous. Clients should be encouraged to exercise regularly but should be advised to avoid overexertion. Statements A, B, and D demonstrate appropriate understanding and management of COPD symptoms.

4. While caring for a client with extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest, which risk should the nurse prioritize for assessment and intervention?

• A. Airway obstruction
• B. Infection
• C. Fluid imbalance
• D. Paralytic ileus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client sustains burns to the head, neck, or chest, the risk of airway obstruction is a critical concern due to potential swelling, inflammation, or inhalation injury. Any compromise to the airway can lead to severe respiratory distress or failure. Early recognition and intervention to maintain a clear airway are essential to prevent life-threatening complications in burn patients.

5. During an acute asthma attack, a healthcare provider assesses a client. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is worsening?

• A. Loud wheezing
• B. Increased respiratory rate
• C. Decreased breath sounds
• D. Productive cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client experiencing an acute asthma attack, decreased breath sounds suggest severe airway obstruction or respiratory fatigue, indicating a worsening condition. Loud wheezing, increased respiratory rate, and a productive cough are common manifestations during an asthma attack as the airways constrict, leading to turbulent airflow causing wheezing, increased effort to breathe resulting in a higher respiratory rate, and mucus production causing a productive cough. However, decreased breath sounds signify a critical situation requiring immediate intervention.

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