Nursing Elites

1. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Decrease the heparin rate.
• B. Increase the heparin rate.
• C. No change to the heparin rate.
• D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives oxygen therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
• B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• C. Client reports shortness of breath
• D. Use of accessory muscles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy may indicate respiratory depression, necessitating immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 91%, client reports of shortness of breath, and use of accessory muscles are expected in COPD clients.

3. What instruction should be included when teaching a client with asthma about using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI)?

• A. Shake the inhaler well before use.
• B. Inhale rapidly while administering the medication.
• C. Administer the medication while lying down.
• D. Hold the inhaler 2 inches away from the mouth while inhaling.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shaking the inhaler well before use ensures that the medication is properly mixed, allowing for an accurate dose with each administration. Inhaling slowly and deeply, not rapidly, helps the medication reach the lungs effectively. The medication should be administered while sitting or standing to facilitate proper lung expansion and airflow. Holding the inhaler 2 inches away from the mouth can lead to medication loss; it should be placed directly in the mouth or used with a spacer to optimize delivery to the airways.

4. A client in a clinic presents with an acute asthma exacerbation. Which of the following medications should reduce the symptoms?

• A. Cromolyn via a metered-dose inhaler
• B. Montelukast orally
• C. Budesonide via a dry-powder inhaler
• D. Albuterol via a jet nebulizer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During an acute asthma exacerbation, the preferred medication for symptom relief is a short-acting beta-agonist like albuterol, typically delivered via a jet nebulizer for quick onset and efficacy. Cromolyn, montelukast, and budesonide are not as effective for immediate symptom relief in acute exacerbations and are more commonly used for prevention or long-term management of asthma symptoms.

5. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

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