Nursing Elites

1. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Decrease the heparin rate.
• B. Increase the heparin rate.
• C. No change to the heparin rate.
• D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

2. A client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) requires care planning. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan?

• A. Administer low-flow oxygen continuously via nasal cannula.
• B. Encourage oral intake of at least 3,000 mL of fluids per day.
• C. Offer high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods frequently.
• D. Place in a prone position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), placing the client in a prone position helps improve ventilation-perfusion matching and oxygenation. This position can optimize lung function and is a beneficial intervention for clients with ARDS. Administering low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula, encouraging oral intake of excess fluids, or offering high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods are not primary interventions for ARDS and may not directly address the respiratory distress experienced by the client.

3. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. Weight gain of 1 kg since the last dialysis session
• B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is critically high and can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a common complication in clients with ESRD due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. High potassium levels can result in serious cardiac consequences such as arrhythmias, cardiac arrest, and death. Prompt action is necessary to prevent these severe complications.

4. A client with asthma is being taught about peak flow meter use. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will use my peak flow meter every morning.
• B. I will use my peak flow meter when I feel short of breath.
• C. I will use my peak flow meter before using my inhaler.
• D. I will use my peak flow meter after using my inhaler.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using the peak flow meter every morning is crucial for monitoring asthma control and making timely treatment adjustments. While using the meter when feeling short of breath or before using an inhaler can also be beneficial, the daily morning routine helps in consistent management of asthma symptoms.

5. A nursing student asks what essential hypertension is. What response by the registered nurse is best?

• A. It means it is caused by another disease.
• B. It means it is essential that it be treated.
• C. It is hypertension with no specific cause.
• D. It refers to severe and life-threatening hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Essential hypertension, also known as primary or idiopathic hypertension, is the most common type of hypertension. It has no specific underlying cause such as an associated disease process. In contrast, hypertension that is due to another disease is referred to as secondary hypertension. Malignant hypertension is a severe and life-threatening form of hypertension characterized by rapidly progressive blood pressure elevation and potential end-organ damage.

Similar Questions