ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A patient is being educated about sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following statements by the patient indicates that further teaching is necessary?
- A. I can take this medication with nitroglycerin.
- B. This medication can cause an erection lasting more than 4 hours.
- C. I should not take this medication if I am taking medications containing nitrates.
- D. This medication is safe to take with any over-the-counter medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because sildenafil should not be taken with medications containing nitrates, such as nitroglycerin, due to the risk of severe hypotension. Choice B is incorrect because priapism (prolonged erection) is a serious side effect but does not require immediate intervention like severe hypotension. Choice C is incorrect as it correctly identifies a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice D is incorrect because not all over-the-counter medications are safe to take with sildenafil, and interactions can occur.
2. When evaluating the success of adding raltegravir to the drug regimen of a 42-year-old female patient with HIV, which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?
- A. The patient's C-reactive protein levels
- B. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. The patient's viral load
- D. The patient's CD4 count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's viral load. In HIV management, monitoring the viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. A decrease in viral load indicates the treatment's success in controlling the HIV infection. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. C-reactive protein levels and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are markers of inflammation and non-specific indicators of infection, not specifically for HIV. CD4 count is important but not as immediate for evaluating the response to the newly added medication compared to monitoring the viral load.
3. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes
- B. Mumps
- C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
- D. Testicular trauma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.
4. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What important instruction should the nurse provide about the use of this medication?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
- C. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- D. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels. This is crucial for the effectiveness of medroxyprogesterone acetate in treating endometriosis. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific instruction related to food intake. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is not a specific consideration for this medication.
5. What important point should the nurse emphasize about taking oral contraceptives consistently?
- A. Oral contraceptives must be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid side effects at night.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken with food to enhance absorption.
- D. Oral contraceptives can be skipped occasionally without significant consequences.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. It is crucial for patients taking oral contraceptives to take them at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels, which is essential for their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of the medication is more about consistency than avoiding side effects at night. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives do not necessarily need to be taken with food for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because skipping oral contraceptives occasionally can significantly reduce their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
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