Nursing Elites

1. A group of newly licensed nurses is being taught about client advocacy by a nurse. Which of the following statements by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will intervene if there is a conflict between a client and their provider.
• B. I should not advocate for a client unless they are able to ask me themselves.
• C. I will inform a client that their family should help make their health care decisions.
• D. I believe the best health care decision is for the provider to decide.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because advocating for a client should not be dependent on the client's ability to ask for it personally. Advocacy is crucial to ensure clients' rights are upheld, especially when they are unable to express their wishes. Choice A is incorrect as intervening in a conflict may not always be advocating for the client's best interests. Choice C is incorrect because the family should not make health care decisions for the client without their input. Choice D is incorrect as it disregards the importance of client autonomy and involvement in decision-making.

2. A client in active labor is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
• B. FHR baseline of 170/min.
• C. Early decelerations in the FHR.
• D. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a baseline FHR of 170/min indicates fetal tachycardia, which needs further evaluation. Choice A about contractions lasting 80 seconds is within the normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are generally considered benign and do not require immediate reporting. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), falls within normal limits for a laboring client and does not warrant immediate reporting.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Insert a tongue depressor into the client's mouth.
• B. Restrain the client's arms and legs.
• C. Turn the client onto their side.
• D. Place the client in a prone position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse should turn the client onto their side. This action helps maintain an open airway by allowing saliva or any vomitus to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of aspiration. Inserting a tongue depressor (choice A) is incorrect as it can cause injury to the client's mouth and is not recommended during a seizure. Restraining the client's arms and legs (choice B) can lead to physical harm and should be avoided. Placing the client in a prone position (choice D) is dangerous as it can obstruct the airway and hinder breathing, which is not suitable for a client experiencing a seizure.

4. A client receiving warfarin is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating leafy green vegetables while taking this medication.
• B. I will need to have my INR checked regularly while taking this medication.
• C. I will take this medication at the same time each day.
• D. I will avoid taking aspirin while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking warfarin should avoid aspirin to reduce the risk of bleeding, as both medications can thin the blood. Choice A is incorrect because it is essential to eat a consistent amount of leafy green vegetables to maintain a steady intake of Vitamin K, which can impact warfarin's effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect although important because INR checks are necessary but do not specifically show an understanding of the teaching. Choice C is incorrect because while taking warfarin at the same time each day is beneficial for consistency, it does not directly address the interaction with aspirin.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

Similar Questions