Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fever
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. The nurse should instruct the client to report fever as it can be an indication of an infection, which is a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring for fever is crucial to detect early signs of infection and prevent complications. Dizziness (choice A), urinary frequency (choice C), and dry mouth (choice D) are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are not the primary concerns that the nurse needs to address with the client.

2. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. What finding should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving cyclophosphamide, the nurse should monitor for hemorrhagic cystitis, a severe adverse effect caused by bladder irritation. It is essential to watch for signs such as hematuria, dysuria, and urinary frequency, and promptly intervene to prevent further complications. Hypertension (Choice A) is not typically associated with cyclophosphamide use. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common side effect of cyclophosphamide. Ototoxicity (Choice C) is more commonly associated with medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics or high-dose aspirin.

3. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer atenolol (Tenormin) to a client with angina. Which vital sign would cause the healthcare professional to question administering this drug?

• A. Respirations 12 breaths per minute
• B. Pulse 52 beats per minute
• C. Blood pressure 134/72
• D. Oxygen saturation 95%

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker medication that can lower heart rate. A pulse of 52 beats per minute is relatively low and administering atenolol could further decrease the heart rate, potentially leading to bradycardia. Monitoring the pulse rate and holding the medication if the pulse is below the prescribed parameters is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as bradycardia and hypotension.

4. A client is prescribed Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?

• A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
• D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, causing potassium retention, potentially leading to elevated potassium levels. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), indicating hyperkalemia, a serious condition. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels promptly to the healthcare provider are crucial to prevent potential complications. Sodium, chloride, and calcium levels are not directly influenced by Spironolactone, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

5. What are the actions of the drug metformin?

• A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption
• B. Increases sensitivity to insulin
• C. Short-term sedation
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metformin has dual actions by decreasing hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption, which helps in reducing blood glucose levels. Additionally, it increases sensitivity to insulin, aiding in its proper utilization within the body. Choice A is correct as metformin acts by decreasing hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption. Choice B is also correct as metformin increases sensitivity to insulin. Choice C, short-term sedation, is incorrect as metformin is not known for causing sedation. Therefore, the correct answer is D because metformin performs both of these actions.

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