Nursing Elites

1. When educating a client who has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide, which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. You may need to increase your intake of potassium.
• C. This medication may cause drowsiness.
• D. Avoid consuming grapefruit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement to include when educating a client with a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide is that they may need to increase their intake of potassium. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can lead to potassium loss. Monitoring potassium levels and increasing potassium intake if necessary can help prevent complications associated with hypokalemia. Option A is not directly related to the medication's specific instructions. Option C is incorrect as Hydrochlorothiazide typically does not cause drowsiness. Option D is unrelated, as there is no interaction between Hydrochlorothiazide and grapefruit.

2. When administering IV Amphotericin B to a client with a systemic fungal infection, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Constipation
• C. Fever
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is fever. Amphotericin B is known to cause adverse effects such as fever, chills, and nausea during infusion. Monitoring for fever is essential as it can indicate an adverse reaction. To manage these effects, pretreatment with diphenhydramine and acetaminophen can be administered.

3. What is the first type of medication prescribed to prevent angina pain for a client?

• A. Beta blockers
• B. Alpha blockers
• C. Calcium channel blockers
• D. Organic nitrates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta blockers are the first-line medication prescribed to prevent angina pain. They work by reducing the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. This helps in preventing angina attacks by improving blood flow to the heart. Alpha blockers, calcium channel blockers, and organic nitrates are also used in angina treatment but are typically considered after beta blockers.

4. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL
• B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Bilateral equal pupil size

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The nurse should promptly notify the provider, discontinue the Mannitol, and initiate appropriate interventions to address the dyspnea and monitor the client's condition closely. Choice A, Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL, is within normal limits and not directly related to Mannitol administration. Choice B, Urine output of 40 mL/hr, could indicate decreased renal perfusion, but it is not the most critical finding compared to dyspnea. Choice D, Bilateral equal pupil size, is a normal neurological finding and not directly related to Mannitol therapy.

5. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Insomnia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with Clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause a reduction in saliva production, leading to dry mouth. Monitoring for this adverse effect is essential to ensure client comfort and compliance with the medication. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Insomnia is more commonly associated with opioid withdrawal rather than Clonidine use. While Clonidine is used to treat hypertension, it is not typically an adverse effect of the medication.

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