ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. A client has a new prescription for Nitroglycerin to treat angina. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take this medication only when experiencing chest pain.
- B. Store the medication in a cool, dry place.
- C. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
- D. Do not cut the patch regardless of your blood pressure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When using Nitroglycerin patches to treat angina, it is crucial to apply the patch to a different site each time. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and ensures proper absorption of the medication, optimizing its effectiveness in managing angina symptoms.
2. A client is starting therapy with raloxifene. Which adverse effect should the client monitor for as instructed by the nurse?
- A. Leg cramps
- B. Hot flashes
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Hair loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hot flashes are a common adverse effect associated with raloxifene therapy. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Hot flashes are a well-known side effect of SERMs due to their estrogen-like effects on the body. Leg cramps, urinary frequency, and hair loss are not typically associated with raloxifene therapy. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for hot flashes as part of the medication education.
3. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?
- A. Over 1,000 mg
- B. 750 mg
- C. Over 1,500 mg
- D. 150 mg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Hemoglobin A1C of 7.5%
- B. Creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL
- C. BUN level of 18 mg/dL
- D. Liver function tests showing AST of 50 units/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Elevated AST levels in liver function tests should be reported to the provider when a client is prescribed Metformin due to the potential risk of hepatotoxicity associated with the medication. Elevated Hemoglobin A1C (choice A), Creatinine level within normal range (choice B), and BUN level within normal range (choice C) are not directly concerning when initiating Metformin therapy.
5. A client has a new prescription for allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Drink 2 liters of water daily.
- B. Avoid taking the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Limit vitamin C intake while taking this medication.
- D. Take an iron supplement while on this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed allopurinol is to drink 2 liters of water daily. This helps reduce the risk of kidney stones, a potential side effect of allopurinol use. Adequate hydration is essential to prevent kidney stone formation and maintain kidney function while taking this medication.
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