ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for fluoxetine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. "You should expect to feel an improvement in your symptoms within 1 week."
- B. "You may experience weight gain while taking this medication."
- C. "You should take this medication in the morning to prevent insomnia."
- D. "You should stop taking this medication if you experience dry mouth."
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is that the client may experience weight gain while taking fluoxetine. Weight gain is a common side effect of fluoxetine, and patients should be informed about this potential issue. Stating that the client should expect improvement in symptoms within 1 week (Choice A) is incorrect as fluoxetine may take a few weeks to have a noticeable effect. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia (Choice C) is not necessary since fluoxetine can be taken at any time of the day. Instructing the client to stop taking the medication if experiencing dry mouth (Choice D) is misleading, as dry mouth is a common but usually not serious side effect of fluoxetine.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
- B. aPTT 60 seconds
- C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
- D. INR 1.5
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
3. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient refusing treatment for religious reasons?
- A. Respect the patient's beliefs
- B. Attempt to persuade the patient
- C. Provide education on treatment benefits
- D. Document the refusal and notify the provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Respecting the patient's beliefs is crucial in providing patient-centered care. Attempting to persuade the patient may violate their autonomy and decision-making capacity, leading to a breakdown in trust. Providing education on treatment benefits may be appropriate in other situations but is not the best approach when a patient refuses treatment based on religious reasons. Documenting the refusal and notifying the provider are important steps to ensure proper continuity of care, but the primary response should be to respect the patient's beliefs to maintain a trusting relationship and uphold ethical standards.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the right tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serous drainage on the dressing
- B. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
- C. Heart rate of 88/min
- D. Pallor of the affected extremity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pallor of the affected extremity could indicate impaired circulation, such as compromised blood flow to the area, which is crucial to monitor postoperatively. This finding suggests potential vascular compromise or decreased blood supply to the extremity, which is a serious concern and should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period and does not necessarily indicate a complication requiring immediate provider notification. Capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds) and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 88/min is also within the normal range for an adult and is not typically a cause for immediate concern postoperatively.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L
- B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- C. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium 3.5 mEq/L. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia as an adverse effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with potential adverse effects of digoxin. Sodium levels are not typically affected by digoxin, calcium levels are not a primary concern with digoxin therapy, and magnesium levels are not the most important to monitor for digoxin adverse effects.
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