a nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus about insulin administration which of the following instructions shou
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about insulin administration. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to rotate injection sites within the same region to prevent tissue damage. By rotating sites, the client can prevent lipodystrophy, which is a condition characterized by the loss or change in body fat at the site of repeated injections. This practice also helps to ensure proper insulin absorption. Storing unopened vials of insulin in the refrigerator (Choice A) is correct, not in the freezer, as freezing can damage the insulin. Administering insulin at a 90-degree angle (Choice C) is more appropriate for subcutaneous injections, while a 45-degree angle is used for intramuscular injections. Massaging the injection site after administering insulin (Choice D) is not recommended as it can affect insulin absorption rates.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, the gastrointestinal tract needs to rest to reduce pancreatic enzyme secretion. Inserting a nasogastric tube for suction helps decompress the stomach and reduce stimulation of the pancreas. Encouraging oral intake of clear liquids (Choice A) or administering an antiemetic before meals (Choice B) may aggravate the condition by stimulating the pancreas. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) may not directly address the underlying issue of reducing pancreatic stimulation.

3. A client who has a new prescription for lisinopril is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because lisinopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril can cause increased urination, so fluid intake should not be limited.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Diuretics, such as furosemide, commonly cause potassium loss in patients, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves low sodium levels and can occur in conditions like syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) but is not directly caused by diuretics. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is an excess of magnesium, usually not a common electrolyte imbalance induced by diuretics.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin level. Monitoring the serum albumin level helps assess the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Serum albumin is a protein that reflects the long-term nutritional status of a patient. Serum calcium level (choice A) is not directly related to TPN effectiveness. Blood glucose level (choice B) is important to monitor in diabetic patients but is not the primary indicator of TPN efficacy. Serum sodium level (choice D) is more related to fluid balance and electrolyte status rather than the effectiveness of TPN.

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