Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about insulin administration. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Store unopened vials of insulin in the refrigerator, not the freezer.
• B. Rotate injection sites within the same region to prevent tissue damage.
• C. Administer insulin at a 90-degree angle for subcutaneous injections.
• D. Avoid massaging the injection site after administering insulin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to rotate injection sites within the same region to prevent tissue damage. By rotating sites, the client can prevent lipodystrophy, which is a condition characterized by the loss or change in body fat at the site of repeated injections. This practice also helps to ensure proper insulin absorption. Storing unopened vials of insulin in the refrigerator (Choice A) is correct, not in the freezer, as freezing can damage the insulin. Administering insulin at a 90-degree angle (Choice C) is more appropriate for subcutaneous injections, while a 45-degree angle is used for intramuscular injections. Massaging the injection site after administering insulin (Choice D) is not recommended as it can affect insulin absorption rates.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should take this medication in the morning to reduce urination during the day.
• B. You may experience ringing in your ears as a side effect.
• C. This medication may cause your potassium level to decrease.
• D. You should consume foods high in potassium while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about furosemide is that it may cause potassium levels to decrease. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, emphasizing the importance of monitoring potassium levels. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option B is incorrect as tinnitus, not ringing in the ears, is associated with furosemide use. Option D is wrong because while it is essential to monitor potassium levels, the client should be advised to consume foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia.

3. How should pain be assessed in a non-verbal patient?

• A. Observe facial expressions
• B. Use the Wong-Baker faces scale
• C. Assess heart rate
• D. Ask the patient to rate their pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing facial expressions is essential in assessing pain levels in non-verbal patients. Non-verbal cues, such as facial grimacing, furrowed brows, or clenched jaws, can provide valuable information about the patient's pain experience. Using the Wong-Baker faces scale or assessing heart rate may not be as effective in non-verbal patients as they are unable to communicate their pain through these methods. Asking the patient to rate their pain is also not suitable for non-verbal patients as they may not have the ability to verbally communicate their pain levels.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displays toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client supine.
• B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water.
• C. Administer methylergonovine IM.
• D. Administer calcium gluconate IV.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate IV is the correct action when a client displays toxicity from magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate is used as the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity as it counteracts the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) is not the immediate action needed. Administering dextrose 5% in water (Choice B) is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering methylergonovine IM (Choice C) is used in postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

5. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
• B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if they do not attend group therapy.
• C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
• D. Place the client in seclusion when they exhibit signs of anxiety.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is an appropriate intervention for managing mania in a client with bipolar disorder. During a manic episode, individuals often have increased energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and may engage in high-risk behaviors. Encouraging regular rest periods can help reduce stimulation and promote relaxation, which may assist in stabilizing mood. Choices A and B are not as effective in managing manic symptoms, as they do not directly address the client's need for rest and relaxation. Choice D is inappropriate because placing the client in seclusion can increase feelings of anxiety and agitation, worsening the manic episode.

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