ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Redness at the insertion site.
- B. Swelling of the arm above the insertion site.
- C. A bruised area around the insertion site.
- D. A temperature of 37.2°C (99°F).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Swelling of the arm above the insertion site is concerning as it can indicate complications like thrombosis, which require immediate attention. Redness at the insertion site is common and expected in the initial stages. A bruised area around the insertion site may result from the insertion procedure and is usually not alarming unless it worsens or becomes larger. A temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) is within the normal range and is not directly related to PICC complications.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clozapine. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels
- B. Monitor WBC count
- C. Monitor platelet count
- D. Monitor hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the WBC count. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a severe decrease in WBC count, which can increase the risk of infection. Monitoring the WBC count is essential to detect this potentially life-threatening condition early. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice A) is not directly related to clozapine use. Platelet count (Choice C) and hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are not typically affected by clozapine and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum glucose.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum calcium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Stay in bed for at least 1 hour if unable to fall asleep.
- B. Take a 1-hour nap during the day.
- C. Perform exercise before bed.
- D. Eat a light snack before bedtime.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to eat a light snack before bedtime. Consuming a light snack can help promote sleep by preventing discomfort from hunger. Choice A is incorrect because staying in bed for too long when unable to fall asleep can lead to frustration and worsen insomnia. Choice B is incorrect as taking a nap during the day can interfere with nighttime sleep. Choice C is incorrect as exercising before bed can increase alertness and make falling asleep more difficult.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. Respiratory rate of 24/min
- B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3
- C. SpO2 of 95%
- D. Clear breath sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.
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