Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has major depressive disorder and is taking tranylcypromine. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Milk
• B. Bananas
• C. Yogurt
• D. Cured meats

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cured meats. Cured meats contain tyramine, which can lead to a hypertensive crisis in clients taking tranylcypromine. Bananas, milk, and yogurt do not contain significant amounts of tyramine and are safe for clients taking this medication. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid cured meats to prevent adverse effects.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the dose of warfarin?

• A. PT 28 seconds
• B. INR 1.2
• C. aPTT 40 seconds
• D. Fibrinogen 350 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating inadequate anticoagulation. Therefore, the client would require an increase in the dose of warfarin to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of the need for a dose increase in warfarin therapy. PT of 28 seconds is within the therapeutic range, aPTT of 40 seconds is also within the normal range, and fibrinogen level of 350 mg/dL does not provide information about the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.

3. When teaching a client about nutritional intake, what should be included?

• A. Carbohydrates should be at least 45% of your caloric intake.
• B. Protein should be at least 55% of your caloric intake.
• C. Carbohydrates should be at least 30% of your caloric intake.
• D. Protein should be at least 60% of your caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a client about nutritional intake, it is important to mention that carbohydrates should constitute at least 45% of their daily caloric intake for a balanced diet. This macronutrient provides energy and is essential for proper bodily functions. Choice B is incorrect because protein should typically account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is too low for the recommended carbohydrate intake, as it should be higher at 45%. Choice D is incorrect as protein intake should generally be around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.

4. A client prescribed clozapine is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I should report a sore throat to my provider.”
• B. “I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking this medication.”
• C. “I should take this medication with food.”
• D. “I should avoid taking this medication with food.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that decreases the number of white blood cells. Reporting a sore throat is crucial as it could be a sign of infection. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between clozapine and grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect because clozapine is usually taken without regard to meals. Choice D is incorrect as clozapine is generally taken without food to enhance absorption.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Increased muscle strength.
• C. Diarrhea.
• D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.

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