ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the history of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which condition in the client's history is a contraindication?
- A. Hyperthyroidism.
- B. Thrombophlebitis.
- C. Diverticulosis.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication for the use of combination oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not typically contraindications for using combination oral contraceptives, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.
2. What is the priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain?
- A. Administer aspirin
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer aspirin. Administering aspirin is a priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain because it helps reduce the risk of further clot formation and improves oxygenation. Aspirin is commonly used in the initial management of suspected cardiac chest pain. Administering nitroglycerin can follow aspirin administration to help with vasodilation. Repositioning the patient or preparing for surgery are not the primary interventions for chest pain presentation.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral nutrition through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding
- B. Administer the feeding using a large-bore syringe
- C. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees
- D. Replace the feeding bag every 24 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding. This helps maintain tube patency and prevents clogs. Choice B is incorrect because enteral feedings should be administered using a gravity drip method or a pump, not through a large-bore syringe. Choice C is incorrect because the head of the bed should be elevated to at least 30 degrees to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect because the feeding bag should be replaced every 24 hours to prevent bacterial contamination.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. What should the nurse expect?
- A. Fetal hypoxia
- B. Abruptio placentae
- C. Post maturity
- D. Head compression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Early decelerations are caused by head compression resulting from the fetal head being compressed during contractions. They are considered benign and do not indicate fetal distress. Choice A, fetal hypoxia, is incorrect because early decelerations are not associated with fetal hypoxia. Choice B, abruptio placentae, is incorrect as it is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. Choice C, post maturity, is incorrect as it refers to a fetus that remains in the uterus past the due date.
5. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Administer calcium gluconate
- B. Administer insulin
- C. Administer sodium bicarbonate
- D. Administer a diuretic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, the priority is to protect the heart from potential complications like arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment as it stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane. Insulin (Choice B) and sodium bicarbonate (Choice C) can be used in conjunction with other treatments to shift potassium into cells, but calcium gluconate is the priority. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia and can even worsen the condition by reducing potassium excretion.
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