Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare professional identify as complete?

• A. Furosemide 20 mg BID.
• B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily.
• C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch.
• D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides the medication (Metoprolol), dosage (5 mg), route of administration (IV), and timing (now), making it a complete prescription. Choices A, B, and C lack either the route of administration or timing, making them incomplete prescriptions. For choice A, it lacks the route of administration, and for choices B and C, they lack the timing of administration.

2. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test (NST). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should fast for 12 hours before the test.
• B. I should expect the test to take about 10 minutes.
• C. I should have a full bladder for this test.
• D. I will need to have my blood glucose checked before the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test typically takes about 10 minutes and evaluates the fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Having a full bladder or fasting for 12 hours is not required for a nonstress test. Checking blood glucose levels is not part of the nonstress test procedure.

3. A client with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings should be positioned in which way?

• A. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water before feedings.
• B. Place the client in a supine position during feedings.
• C. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.
• D. Check gastric residuals every 8 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positioning the client with the head of the bed elevated at 45 degrees is crucial during enteral feedings to prevent aspiration. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feedings into the lungs. Option A is not necessary before feedings. Placing the client in a supine position (Option B) increases the risk of aspiration. Checking gastric residuals every 8 hours (Option D) is important but not directly related to positioning during enteral feedings.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable cardioverter defibrillator. Which of the following statements demonstrates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will soak in the tub rather than showering.
• B. I will wear loose clothing around my ICD.
• C. I will stop using my microwave oven at home because of my ICD.
• D. I can hold my cellphone on the same side of my body as the ICD.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Wearing loose clothing around the ICD is essential to avoid putting pressure on the device, which can interfere with its function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Soaking in a tub rather than showering is not relevant to ICD care. Stopping the use of a microwave oven is not necessary with an ICD. Holding a cellphone on the same side as the ICD is not recommended as it can potentially interfere with the device.

5. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 1-day-old and receiving phototherapy for jaundice. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Feed the infant 30 ml (1 oz) of glucose water every 2 hours.
• B. Keep the infant's head covered with a cap.
• C. Ensure that the newborn wears a diaper.
• D. Apply lotion to the newborn every 4 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ensure that the newborn wears a diaper. This is important to prevent skin irritation during phototherapy. Choice A is incorrect as newborns should be breastfed or formula-fed, not given glucose water. Choice B is unnecessary and may interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy. Choice D is inappropriate as lotions can interfere with the phototherapy and increase the risk of skin damage.

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