a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is starting a new prescription for prednisone which of the following instructions should the nurse inclu
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. When starting a new prescription for prednisone, which instruction should the nurse include for the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting a new prescription for prednisone is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency, emphasizing the importance of gradual tapering under healthcare provider guidance. Increasing potassium-rich foods may be necessary based on individual needs, but it is not the priority instruction in this context. Grapefruit juice interaction is more commonly associated with certain medications but not specifically with prednisone. Taking prednisone at bedtime to prevent drowsiness is not a key instruction related to its administration.

2. A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. The client reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should withhold the medication and inform the provider of the client's previous rash after taking penicillin. This history suggests a potential allergic reaction to penicillin, which can range from mild to severe anaphylaxis. Notifying the provider allows for an alternative antibiotic to be prescribed, considering the client's allergy to penicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering a medication that could potentially lead to a severe allergic reaction in the client. Administering the prescribed dose (Choice A) could be harmful due to the potential for an allergic reaction. Changing the prescription to an oral form (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue of a potential penicillin allergy. Administering an oral antihistamine (Choice D) without consulting the provider may not be sufficient to prevent a severe allergic reaction.

3. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote for Warfarin toxicity as it helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and administering vitamin K can replenish these factors, thereby counteracting the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Vitamin D, Vitamin C, and Vitamin B6 do not have the specific mechanism to counteract the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, making them incorrect choices.

4. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, an adverse effect of the medication. It suggests potential fluid overload or exacerbation of heart conditions, both of which require immediate attention. Reporting dyspnea promptly allows for timely evaluation and management. Blood glucose levels and urine output are important parameters to monitor but are not directly related to the administration of Mannitol for increased intracranial pressure. Bilateral equal pupil size is a normal and expected finding.

5. A client is receiving daily doses of Oprelvekin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Oprelvekin is a medication that stimulates platelet production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count is essential to assess the effectiveness of this drug. The expected outcome for oprelvekin therapy is a platelet count greater than 50,000/mm^3. Changes in platelet count can indicate the response to the medication and help in adjusting the treatment plan accordingly. Monitoring hemoglobin, absolute neutrophil count, or total white blood cell count is not directly related to the mechanism of action of Oprelvekin and therefore would not provide accurate information on the drug's effectiveness.

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