a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus which of the following client statements indicates an un
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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with type 1 diabetes should rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region to prevent lipodystrophy. Choice A is incorrect because blood glucose levels should be checked regularly, not only when feeling sick. Choice B is incorrect as injecting insulin in the same spot each time can lead to lipodystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as insulin injections are usually required based on meal schedules and blood glucose levels, not just when levels are above 200 mg/dL.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment by assessing which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Client-reported improvement in anxiety is an indication of effective treatment for pulmonary embolism. Choice A is incorrect as increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate complications or lack of improvement. Choice C is incorrect as diminished breath sounds auscultated unilaterally may suggest a localized lung issue and not necessarily reflect the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG results provided do not specifically indicate the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism.

3. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling in the hands is a potential sign of worsening preeclampsia, and the client should report this to their provider. Choice A is incorrect since aspirin is not recommended in preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as calcium intake is not directly related to preventing seizures in preeclampsia. Choice D is incorrect because protein restriction is not the standard management for preventing further kidney damage in preeclampsia.

4. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

5. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin is being taught about the medication's adverse effects by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious adverse effect of warfarin that requires immediate medical attention. Option A is incorrect because while bruising is a common side effect of warfarin, it is not limited to the elbows. Option B is incorrect as a red rash is not a typical adverse effect of warfarin. Option C is also incorrect because developing a cough is not a reason to discontinue warfarin unless advised by a healthcare provider.

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