a nurse is providing instructions about the use of laxatives to a client who has heart failure the nurse should tell the client he should avoid which

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client with heart failure is receiving instructions about laxative use. The client should be advised to avoid which of the following laxatives?

A. Sodium phosphate
B. Psyllium
C. Bisacodyl
D. Polyethylene glycol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with heart failure often have sodium restrictions. Sodium phosphate can lead to fluid retention due to sodium absorption, which is harmful for individuals with heart failure. Therefore, it should be avoided in this population to prevent exacerbating fluid overload. Psyllium, Bisacodyl, and Polyethylene glycol are safer options for individuals with heart failure as they do not pose the risk of exacerbating fluid overload through sodium retention.

2. Which of the following is not an effect of the drug isoflurane?

A. Elevated lipid levels
B. Nausea
C. Increased blood flow to the brain
D. Decreased respiratory function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isoflurane is not known to cause elevated lipid levels. Common effects of isoflurane include nausea, increased blood flow to the brain, and decreased respiratory function. Elevated lipid levels are not typically associated with the administration of isoflurane, making choice A the correct answer.

3. Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Bumetanide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by antagonizing the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and sodium excretion. This mechanism makes it a suitable choice for conditions where potassium retention is desired, such as in patients with heart failure or liver cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics, respectively, which promote the excretion of potassium.

4. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?

A. Swelling of the ankles.
B. Increased urination.
C. Persistent cough.
D. Dark-colored urine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.

5. What is the first type of medication prescribed to prevent angina pain for a client?

A. Beta blockers
B. Alpha blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Organic nitrates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta blockers are the first-line medication prescribed to prevent angina pain. They work by reducing the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. This helps in preventing angina attacks by improving blood flow to the heart. Alpha blockers, calcium channel blockers, and organic nitrates are also used in angina treatment but are typically considered after beta blockers.