Nursing Elites

1. While teaching a client starting therapy with rituximab, which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fever
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. The nurse should instruct the client to report fever as it can be an indication of an infection, which is a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring for fever is crucial to promptly address any signs of infection and ensure the client's safety during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to a serious complication requiring immediate attention.

2. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

3. The client with angina is being discharged to home. The nurse is instructing the client on dietary changes. What should be included in this teaching?

• A. Decrease salt and fat intake and limit alcohol intake.
• B. There are no dietary restrictions for a person diagnosed with angina.
• C. Limit smoking and increase protein and sugar intake.
• D. Increase fruits, vegetables, and foods high in cholesterol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease salt and fat intake and limit alcohol intake. These dietary changes can help manage angina by reducing the workload on the heart and preventing further plaque buildup in the arteries. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as dietary restrictions for angina typically involve reducing salt, fat, and alcohol intake, rather than increasing sugar or cholesterol intake.

4. A client has a new prescription for Enfuvirtide to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions?

• A. Bone marrow suppression
• B. Pancreatitis
• C. Pancreatitis
• D. Bone marrow suppression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: While bone marrow suppression is not typically associated with Enfuvirtide, a more relevant concern is the risk of severe allergic reactions such as anaphylaxis. Enfuvirtide, an HIV fusion inhibitor, can cause local injection site reactions and systemic allergic responses. Monitoring for signs of allergic reactions, such as rash, fever, and difficulty breathing, is crucial to ensure the client's safety.

5. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?

• A. Cefaclor
• B. Cefazolin
• C. Cefepime
• D. Cephalexin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

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