ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I can have clear liquids up to 2 hours before the procedure.
- B. I need to take a laxative the night before the procedure.
- C. I will be sedated during the procedure.
- D. I should avoid eating solid foods for 24 hours before the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients are typically instructed to avoid solid foods for 12-24 hours before a colonoscopy, not a full 24 hours. This statement indicates a need for further teaching to ensure the client follows the correct dietary instructions for the procedure.
2. A client reports a headache and vertigo after turning on his furnace for the first time this season. The nurse should suspect which of the following conditions?
- A. Carbon monoxide poisoning
- B. Heat stroke
- C. Hypersensitivity reaction
- D. Oxygen toxicity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client reports headache and vertigo after turning on the furnace for the first time, it suggests carbon monoxide poisoning. Carbon monoxide is an odorless, colorless gas that can be released by malfunctioning heating systems. Symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning include headache, dizziness, weakness, nausea, and confusion. It is crucial for the nurse to suspect this condition promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
4. A client is 1-day postoperative following a left lower lobectomy and has a chest tube in place. When assessing the client's three-chamber drainage system, the nurse notes that there is no bubbling in the suction control chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Continue to monitor the client as this is an expected finding.
- B. Add more water to the suction control chamber of the drainage system.
- C. Verify that the suction regulator is on and check the tubing for leaks.
- D. Milk the chest tube and dislodge any clots in the tubing that are occluding it.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a three-chamber chest drainage system, the absence of bubbling in the suction control chamber indicates that no suction is being applied to the chest tube. The nurse should first verify that the suction regulator is on and check the tubing for any leaks that may be causing the lack of suction. Adding more water to the chamber or milking the chest tube are inappropriate actions and could potentially harm the client. Monitoring the client without taking action could lead to complications if the chest tube is not functioning properly.
5. A nursing student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (SATA)
- A. Age
- B. Hypertension
- C. Obesity
- D. Smoking
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor as it is a natural process of life.
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