Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can have clear liquids up to 2 hours before the procedure.
• B. I need to take a laxative the night before the procedure.
• C. I will be sedated during the procedure.
• D. I should avoid eating solid foods for 24 hours before the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients are typically instructed to avoid solid foods for 12-24 hours before a colonoscopy, not a full 24 hours. This statement indicates a need for further teaching to ensure the client follows the correct dietary instructions for the procedure.

2. A client with acute respiratory failure (ARF) is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations of this condition?

• A. Severe dyspnea
• B. Nausea
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute respiratory failure, the body is not getting enough oxygen, leading to hypoxia. Symptoms of hypoxia include severe dyspnea (A), decreased level of consciousness (C), and headache (D) due to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain. Nausea (B) is not a typical manifestation of acute respiratory failure and is not directly related to the lack of oxygen in the body. Therefore, the nurse should not monitor the client for nausea as a direct consequence of ARF.

3. A client has a pleural chest tube. Which action should the nurse take to ensure safe use of this equipment?

• A. Never strip the tubing to maintain patency.
• B. Secure tubing junctions with tape to prevent accidental disconnections.
• C. Set wall suction at the level recommended by the device manufacturer.
• D. Keep padded clamps at the bedside for use if the drainage system is interrupted.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure safe use of a pleural chest tube, the nurse should keep padded clamps at the bedside for use if the drainage system becomes dislodged or is interrupted. Stripping the tubing should never be done to maintain patency. Tubing junctions should be secured with tape, not clamps. Wall suction should be set at the level recommended by the device manufacturer, not the provider.

4. A client has been diagnosed with hypertension but does not take the antihypertensive medications because of a lack of symptoms. What response by the nurse is best?

• A. Do you have trouble affording your medications?
• B. Most people with hypertension do not have symptoms.
• C. You are lucky; most people get severe morning headaches.
• D. You need to take your medicine or you will get kidney failure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Most people with hypertension are asymptomatic, although a small percentage do have symptoms such as headache. The nurse should explain this to the client. Asking about paying for medications is not related because the client has already admitted nonadherence. Threatening the client with possible complications will not increase compliance.

5. A healthcare provider suspects anaphylaxis when caring for a client following the initial administration of an oral antibiotic. Which of the following should be the healthcare provider's priority intervention?

• A. Insert an IV line
• B. Count the respiratory rate
• C. Administer oxygen
• D. Prepare equipment for intubation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When suspecting anaphylaxis, the priority intervention is to assess the client's respiratory status by counting the respiratory rate. Respiratory distress is a hallmark sign of anaphylaxis, and prompt recognition and management are crucial. Administering oxygen may be necessary, but assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence to determine the severity of the reaction and the need for immediate intervention. Inserting an IV line and preparing for intubation are important interventions in managing anaphylaxis but are secondary to ensuring adequate ventilation.

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