Nursing Elites

1. While providing teaching to a client who is postoperative following coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery and is receiving opioid medications to manage discomfort, which of the following desired effects of medications should the nurse identify as most important for the client's recovery?

• A. It decreases the client's level of anxiety.
• B. It facilitates the client's deep breathing.
• C. It enhances the client's ability to sleep.
• D. It reduces the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the postoperative period following CABG surgery, deep breathing exercises are essential to prevent complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia. Opioid medications can depress the respiratory system, making it crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of deep breathing to maintain optimal lung function. While managing pain and anxiety are important, facilitating deep breathing takes precedence in this situation to promote effective recovery and prevent respiratory complications.

2. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

3. A nurse assesses a client who has a history of heart failure. Which question should the nurse ask to assess the extent of the client's heart failure?

• A. Do you have trouble breathing or chest pain?
• B. Are you able to walk upstairs without fatigue?
• C. Do you awake with breathlessness during the night?
• D. Do you have new-onset heaviness in your legs?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with a history of heart failure generally have negative findings, such as shortness of breath. The nurse needs to determine whether the client's activity is the same or worse, or whether the client identifies a decrease in activity level. Trouble breathing, chest pain, breathlessness at night & peripheral edema are symptoms of heart failure, but do not provide data that can determine the extent of the client's heart failure.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives oxygen therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
• B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• C. Client reports shortness of breath
• D. Use of accessory muscles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy may indicate respiratory depression, necessitating immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 91%, client reports of shortness of breath, and use of accessory muscles are expected in COPD clients.

5. A client is vomiting. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Provide the client with an emesis basin
• B. Notify housekeeping
• C. Prevent the client from aspirating
• D. Administer an antiemetic to the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is vomiting, the priority action for the nurse is to prevent the client from aspirating. Aspiration can lead to serious respiratory complications. Providing the client with an emesis basin can be helpful but preventing aspiration takes precedence. Notifying housekeeping and administering an antiemetic are secondary actions that can be addressed once the client's safety is ensured.

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