Nursing Elites

1. A parent is receiving discharge teaching following their infant's hypospadias repair. Which instruction should the parent follow?

• A. Apply a warm compress to the infant's surgical site twice daily.
• B. Avoid giving the infant a tub bath for 1 week.
• C. Apply an antibiotic ointment to the infant's penis daily.
• D. Clamp the infant's catheter for 30 minutes every 4 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After hypospadias repair, it is essential to avoid giving the infant a tub bath for 1 week to prevent infection and promote proper healing. Submerging the surgical site in water too soon can increase the risk of infection and compromise the healing process.

2. The nurse is reviewing the prescriber�s orders and notes that omeprazole has been order for a patient admitted with acute coronary syndrome (ACS). The nurse should be concerned if this medication is combined with which medication noted on the patient�s record.

• A. Aspirin 81mg daily
• B. Clopidogrel (Plavix) 75mg daily
• C. Heparin 5000 units subQ q12hrs
• D. Metoprolol 50mg q8hrs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For patients who lack risk factors for GI bleeding, combined use of clopidogrel with a PPI, may reduce the effects of clopidogrel without offering any real benefits and thus should be avoided.

3. What is the corrected age of a child born at 30 weeks gestation on May 2, 2014, who is being tested on August 5, 2014?

• A. 3 months
• B. 2 weeks
• C. 2.6 months
• D. 4 weeks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the corrected age of a premature child, you need to adjust for the weeks of prematurity. In this case, the child was born at 30 weeks gestation. From May 2, 2014, to August 5, 2014, is a span of 14 weeks. Subtracting the 30 weeks of gestation from the total time passed (14 weeks) gives the corrected age, which is 14 - 30 = -16 weeks. Since negative weeks are not relevant here, the corrected age is 0 weeks, which is equivalent to 2 weeks. Choice A is incorrect because 3 months is not the correct adjustment for the given scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a fractional value for age, which is not practical in this context. Choice D is incorrect as 4 weeks does not account for the weeks of prematurity.

4. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?

• A. Angina Pectoris
• B. Essential HTN
• C. Atrial Fibrillation
• D. Vasospastic Angina

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.

5. A young child admitted to the pediatric unit has fever, irritability, and vomiting with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) result should the nurse anticipate based on these data?

• A. Decreased protein count
• B. Clear, straw-colored fluid
• C. Positive for red blood cells (RBCs)
• D. Decreased glucose level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In bacterial meningitis, the glucose level in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is typically decreased due to the increased utilization of glucose by the infecting bacteria. This metabolic change leads to a decrease in CSF glucose levels, making choice D the correct answer in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bacterial meningitis usually results in an increased protein count, cloudy appearance of the CSF due to the presence of bacteria, and absence of red blood cells (RBCs) in the CSF unless there is a traumatic tap, respectively.

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