Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parent of a school-age child who has moderate persistent asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should give your child his salmeterol inhaler every 4 hours when he is having an acute episode of wheezing.
• B. You should monitor your child's weight weekly while he is receiving inhaled corticosteroid therapy.
• C. Pulmonary function tests will be performed every 12 to 24 months to evaluate how your child is responding to therapy.
• D. When using the peak expiratory flow meter, record your child's average of three readings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should inform the parent that the child will need pulmonary function tests every 12 to 24 months to assess lung function and response to treatment. These tests help evaluate the presence of lung disease, monitor disease progression, and assess the effectiveness of the current therapeutic regimen in managing asthma. Choice A is incorrect as salmeterol is not used for acute wheezing episodes but rather for long-term maintenance. Choice B is incorrect because weight monitoring is not directly related to inhaled corticosteroid therapy for asthma. Choice D is incorrect as peak expiratory flow meter readings should be recorded as instructed, not averaged.

2. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

• A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
• B. RR of 26 breaths/min
• C. Temp of 38°C
• D. BP of 70/50

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.

3. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating an infant with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should be the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?

• A. Nasal flaring
• B. WBC count of 11,300
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Abdominal distension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing an infant with pneumonia, the priority finding to report to the provider is nasal flaring. Nasal flaring indicates acute respiratory distress, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing respiratory distress take precedence over other symptoms or laboratory results in this situation.

4. Which assessment finding, after the dialysate is drained during peritoneal dialysis for a child experiencing acute renal failure, would warrant further action by the nurse?

• A. The dialysate is clear upon return.
• B. The volume of drained dialysate is less than the volume infused.
• C. The child is restless and eager to play.
• D. The child's vital signs remain consistent with those noted during infusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lower volume of drained dialysate compared to the volume infused suggests a possible obstruction or malfunction in the dialysis process. This finding could compromise the effectiveness of the treatment and needs prompt assessment and intervention by the nurse to ensure the child's safety and well-being. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of complications during peritoneal dialysis. The clarity of the dialysate, the child's behavior, and the consistency of vital signs are not alarming findings that would require immediate action by the nurse.

5. A patient is 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours
• B. Monitor the patient's pain level every 8 hours
• C. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours
• D. Keep the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia is to assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours. This frequent assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. Monitoring every 4 hours allows for early detection of any issues, enabling timely intervention and prevention of potential complications. Monitoring the patient's pain level every 8 hours (choice B) is not as immediate or essential for postoperative care. Assisting the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours (choice C) may not be necessary if the patient is not ambulatory yet. Keeping the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows (choice D) can be beneficial but is not the priority in the immediate postoperative period compared to assessing neurovascular status.

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