Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian.

• A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
• B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
• C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
• D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium and water. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should reduce their intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because limiting spinach intake due to warfarin, eating anchovies with gout, and taking calcium carbonate with water for osteoporosis do not directly relate to the medication's side effects or dietary restrictions associated with spironolactone.

2. A nurse is planning to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following should the nurse do to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction?

• A. Verify the client's blood type with the provider's prescription
• B. Ensure the client's consent for the transfusion is on file
• C. Administer a diuretic prior to starting the transfusion
• D. Check the client's temperature prior to the transfusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type with the provider's prescription. This is crucial to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction due to incompatibility. Ensuring the blood type matches before starting the transfusion is a standard safety practice. Option B, ensuring client consent, is important but not directly related to preventing a transfusion reaction. Option C, administering a diuretic, is unnecessary and can be harmful in this context. Option D, checking the client's temperature, is important for general assessment but not specifically focused on preventing a transfusion reaction.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the dose of warfarin?

• A. PT 28 seconds
• B. INR 1.2
• C. aPTT 40 seconds
• D. Fibrinogen 350 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating inadequate anticoagulation. Therefore, the client would require an increase in the dose of warfarin to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of the need for a dose increase in warfarin therapy. PT of 28 seconds is within the therapeutic range, aPTT of 40 seconds is also within the normal range, and fibrinogen level of 350 mg/dL does not provide information about the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
• B. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
• C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• D. Bile-colored drainage from the surgical site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bile-colored drainage from the surgical site can indicate a bile leak, which is an abnormal finding and should be reported. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are within normal ranges for a postoperative client. Serosanguineous wound drainage, which is a mix of blood and serum, is expected following a surgery like cholecystectomy. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not findings that require immediate reporting.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

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