ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian.
- A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
- B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
- C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
- D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium and water. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should reduce their intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because limiting spinach intake due to warfarin, eating anchovies with gout, and taking calcium carbonate with water for osteoporosis do not directly relate to the medication's side effects or dietary restrictions associated with spironolactone.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
- B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
- C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
- D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing acute mania and having obtained a verbal prescription for restraints, the nurse must ensure to obtain a formal written prescription for restraint within 4 hours. This is crucial to maintain the safety and proper care of the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because renewing the prescription every 8 hours, checking pulse rate every 30 minutes, and documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes do not address the immediate need for a formal restraint prescription within 4 hours to manage the client's acute mania effectively.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
- A. Change the TPN tubing every 48 hours.
- B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
- D. Monitor the client's weight every 72 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This action helps reduce the risk of infection because the high glucose content of TPN promotes bacterial growth. Choice A is incorrect as changing the tubing every 48 hours would not provide adequate infection prevention. Option C, monitoring urine output, is important for assessing renal function but is not directly related to preventing TPN-related infections. Option D, monitoring weight, is essential for assessing nutritional status but does not directly address infection prevention in TPN administration.
4. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?
- A. Chlamydia
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Herpes simplex virus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. It is a sexually transmitted infection that is nationally notifiable, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to the state health department. This is crucial for disease surveillance, monitoring, and implementing public health interventions. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to increased risk of bleeding. Stool softeners help prevent straining during bowel movements, which can reduce the risk of bleeding in individuals with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is unrelated to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control rather than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is more about reducing the risk of infection rather than managing thrombocytopenia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access