ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian.
- A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
- B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
- C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
- D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium and water. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should reduce their intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because limiting spinach intake due to warfarin, eating anchovies with gout, and taking calcium carbonate with water for osteoporosis do not directly relate to the medication's side effects or dietary restrictions associated with spironolactone.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent respiratory complications?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate twice daily.
- B. Encourage the client to deep breathe and cough every hour.
- C. Encourage the client to use an incentive spirometer every hour.
- D. Instruct the client to avoid coughing to prevent pain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Encouraging the client to use an incentive spirometer every hour is crucial to prevent respiratory complications postoperatively. Incentive spirometry helps in lung expansion and prevents atelectasis, which is common after abdominal surgery. Choice A, encouraging ambulation, is important for preventing complications but does not directly address respiratory issues. Choice B, deep breathing and coughing every hour, is also beneficial but not as effective in preventing atelectasis as using an incentive spirometer. Choice D, instructing the client to avoid coughing, is incorrect as coughing helps clear secretions and prevent respiratory complications.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Pallor
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor. Pallor, which is paleness of the skin, is a common sign of anemia due to a decreased number of red blood cells or hemoglobin levels. This results in reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to the paleness of the skin. Choice A, increased appetite, is not typically associated with anemia. Choice C, tachycardia (increased heart rate), can be present in anemia as the body compensates for decreased oxygenation. Choice D, hypertension (high blood pressure), is not a common finding in anemia; instead, low blood pressure may be observed due to decreased blood volume.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who reports a latex allergy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a supine position.
- B. Use non-latex gloves when administering the medication.
- C. Use latex-free syringes when administering the medication.
- D. Administer the medication through a latex-free IV port.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when preparing to administer an IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This measure helps prevent allergic reactions in clients with a known latex allergy. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is not directly related to preventing a latex allergy reaction. Using non-latex gloves (Choice B) is important for protecting the nurse or caregiver from latex exposure but does not prevent the client's allergic reaction. While using latex-free syringes (Choice C) is a good practice, ensuring the IV port is latex-free is more crucial in preventing an allergic response in the client.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Crackles in the lung bases
- B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
- C. Heart rate of 88/min
- D. Frequent productive cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crackles in the lung bases. In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, suggesting worsening respiratory status. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B, an oxygen saturation of 95%, is within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, a heart rate of 88/min, is also within normal limits and does not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Choice D, a frequent productive cough, is a common symptom in pneumonia and may not require immediate reporting unless it is severe or worsening. Therefore, crackles in the lung bases are the most concerning finding that warrants prompt attention.
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