ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian.
- A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
- B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
- C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
- D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium and water. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should reduce their intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because limiting spinach intake due to warfarin, eating anchovies with gout, and taking calcium carbonate with water for osteoporosis do not directly relate to the medication's side effects or dietary restrictions associated with spironolactone.
2. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application.
- B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin.
- C. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch.
- D. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin. This action ensures that the nurse does not absorb any medication through their own skin, promoting safety. Choice A is incorrect because shaving is not necessary and could irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect because transdermal patches should be applied immediately after removal from the protective pouch to maintain their efficacy. Choice D is incorrect because used patches should be folded and discarded safely according to facility protocols.
3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient's pain level post-surgery?
- A. Use a pain rating scale
- B. Check vital signs
- C. Observe for non-verbal cues
- D. Check for abnormal breath sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Using a pain rating scale is the most appropriate method to assess a patient's pain level post-surgery. Pain rating scales provide a standardized way for patients to communicate their pain intensity, allowing for accurate assessment and effective pain management. Checking vital signs (choice B) is important for monitoring a patient's overall health status but may not directly reflect their pain level. Observing for non-verbal cues (choice C) is valuable, but it may not always provide a clear indication of the pain intensity. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (choice D) is relevant for assessing respiratory status but does not directly evaluate the patient's pain level.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will need to have my INR checked regularly while taking this medication.
- B. I should avoid eating leafy green vegetables while taking this medication.
- C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience nausea.
- D. I will avoid taking aspirin while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because clients taking warfarin should have their INR (International Normalized Ratio) checked regularly to monitor the medication's effectiveness and adjust the dose if needed. This monitoring helps to ensure the medication is working correctly and the client is within the therapeutic range. Choice B is incorrect because clients on warfarin should not avoid leafy green vegetables but should maintain a consistent intake. Leafy green vegetables contain vitamin K, which can affect warfarin, so it's important to maintain a consistent intake to keep INR stable. Choice C is incorrect as clients should not stop taking warfarin abruptly without consulting their healthcare provider as it can lead to serious health risks like blood clots. Choice D is incorrect because while taking warfarin, it is important to avoid unnecessary aspirin use due to an increased risk of bleeding. However, this statement does not indicate an understanding of the teaching about the need for regular INR monitoring.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with sepsis. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the client is developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
- A. Elevated hemoglobin
- B. Elevated white blood cell count
- C. Decreased fibrinogen level
- D. Decreased platelet count
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, decreased platelet count. In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), there is widespread activation of clotting factors leading to the formation of multiple blood clots throughout the body, which can deplete platelets. A decreased platelet count is a hallmark of DIC. Elevated hemoglobin (choice A) and elevated white blood cell count (choice B) are not specific indicators of DIC. While fibrinogen levels (choice C) can be decreased in DIC due to consumption, a decreased platelet count is a more specific and early sign of DIC development.
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