Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian.

• A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
• B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
• C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
• D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium and water. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should reduce their intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because limiting spinach intake due to warfarin, eating anchovies with gout, and taking calcium carbonate with water for osteoporosis do not directly relate to the medication's side effects or dietary restrictions associated with spironolactone.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of alcohol use disorder and is experiencing withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Metoclopramide
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Methadone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lorazepam is the correct medication to administer in this situation. It is used to manage the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal and prevent complications like seizures and delirium tremens. Metoclopramide is primarily used to treat gastrointestinal issues, Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication used for conditions like schizophrenia, and Methadone is typically used in managing opioid dependence. These medications are not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal.

3. A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?

• A. I cannot change my instructions once I have signed them.
• B. My doctor will need to approve my advance directives.
• C. I need a witness to sign my advance directives.
• D. I have the right to refuse treatment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement shows an understanding of advance directives because they allow individuals to specify their treatment preferences in advance, including the right to refuse treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate as individuals can update or change their advance directives at any time. Choice B is incorrect because while a doctor may discuss advance directives with the client, approval is not required for the directives to be valid. Choice C is also incorrect as a witness is typically required to verify the client's signature, not the other way around.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 15 minutes every 2 hours.
• B. Empty the drainage collection chamber when it is half full.
• C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest.
• D. Strip the chest tube every 2 hours to maintain patency.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client with a chest tube is to keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest. This positioning helps prevent fluid from flowing back into the pleural space, ensuring proper drainage and effective functioning of the chest tube. Clamping the chest tube intermittently or stripping it frequently can lead to complications and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage collection chamber at specific intervals may vary based on institutional protocols, but it should be done when it is no more than two-thirds full to prevent backflow and maintain accurate monitoring of drainage output.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

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