Nursing Elites

1. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Avoid foods rich in potassium.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Weigh yourself daily.
• D. Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.' Clients prescribed furosemide are at risk for orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Advising the client to stand up slowly can help prevent this complication. Instructing the client to avoid rapid position changes decreases the likelihood of dizziness or fainting episodes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, taking the medication with food, or daily weighing as specific instructions.

2. When teaching a patient to take their own pulse, which medication should the nurse instruct them to monitor? (Hint: if pulse is <60 or >100, the patient should contact their healthcare provider before taking the medication)

• A. Digoxin
• B. Lithium
• C. Montelukast
• D. Phenytoin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for patients taking Digoxin to monitor their pulse regularly. If their pulse falls below 60 or exceeds 100 beats per minute, they should contact their healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial due to Digoxin's potential to affect heart rate, making pulse monitoring a vital aspect of patient care while on this medication.

3. A client in a critical care unit is postoperative following a right pneumonectomy. After extubation from the ventilator, in which of the following positions should the client be placed?

• A. Prone
• B. On the nonoperative side
• C. Sims'
• D. Semi-Fowler's

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position is crucial for optimal ventilation. This position helps improve lung expansion on the remaining side, facilitating better oxygenation and preventing complications like atelectasis. Placing the client prone, on the nonoperative side, or in Sims' position would not provide the same respiratory benefits post-pneumonectomy.

4. What is the classification of furosemide?

• A. Loop diuretic
• B. Anticoagulant
• C. Iron supplement
• D. Anticonvulsant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is classified as a loop diuretic, not an anticoagulant, iron supplement, or anticonvulsant. Loop diuretics, like furosemide, act in the loop of Henle in the kidney to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased urine output. This mechanism makes them effective in treating conditions such as edema and hypertension. Therefore, the correct classification for furosemide is a loop diuretic (Choice A).

5. A client is starting to take amitriptyline. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urinary retention. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, can cause relaxation of the bladder sphincter muscles, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for urinary retention is crucial as it is a common anticholinergic effect associated with this medication. Diarrhea (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline. Bradycardia (choice C) is more commonly associated with beta-blockers rather than tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline. Dry cough (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

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