ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Avoid foods rich in potassium.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Weigh yourself daily.
- D. Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.' Clients prescribed furosemide are at risk for orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Advising the client to stand up slowly can help prevent this complication. Instructing the client to avoid rapid position changes decreases the likelihood of dizziness or fainting episodes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, taking the medication with food, or daily weighing as specific instructions.
2. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. The nurse should identify that the concurrent use of which of the following medications increases the client's risk of bleeding?
- A. Vitamin K
- B. Calcium carbonate
- C. Acetaminophen
- D. Ranitidine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Acetaminophen (Choice C). Acetaminophen, especially in high doses, can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking Warfarin. It can potentiate the anticoagulant effect of Warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Vitamin K (Choice A) is actually used to reverse the effects of Warfarin in case of over-anticoagulation, so it does not increase the risk of bleeding. Calcium carbonate (Choice B) and Ranitidine (Choice D) do not significantly interact with Warfarin to increase the risk of bleeding.
3. A client is being taught about Terbutaline. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. This medication will stop my contractions.
- B. This medication will prevent vaginal bleeding.
- C. This medication will promote blood flow to my baby.
- D. This medication will increase my prostaglandin production.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. Therefore, the client demonstrating understanding by recognizing that the medication will stop contractions is the most accurate response. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Terbutaline is primarily used to inhibit contractions in preterm labor, not prevent vaginal bleeding, promote blood flow to the baby, or increase prostaglandin production.
4. Which of the following drugs is associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin reaction that can be associated with Ethosuximide.
5. A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. If the medication causes an upset stomach, take an antacid at the same time.
- B. Increase your daily fluid intake while taking this medication.
- C. This medication can cause photophobia, so avoid direct sunlight exposure.
- D. You should report any tendon discomfort you experience while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tendon discomfort is a potential side effect of ciprofloxacin that can lead to tendon rupture and should be reported immediately to prevent serious complications. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial for patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Taking an antacid with ciprofloxacin can interfere with its absorption. B) Increasing fluid intake is generally a good recommendation but not specifically related to the side effects of ciprofloxacin. C) Photophobia is not a common side effect of ciprofloxacin; therefore, avoiding direct sunlight exposure is not necessary.
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