a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide 40 mg po daily which of the following instructions s
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.' Clients prescribed furosemide are at risk for orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Advising the client to stand up slowly can help prevent this complication. Instructing the client to avoid rapid position changes decreases the likelihood of dizziness or fainting episodes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, taking the medication with food, or daily weighing as specific instructions.

2. A client has a new prescription for a Fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include for a client using a Fentanyl transdermal patch is to avoid exposure to heat sources. Heat can increase the absorption of the medication, potentially causing an overdose. Instructing the client to avoid heat sources is crucial to ensure their safety and the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to a non-hairy area, changing it every 72 hours, and not cutting the patch are general guidelines for using transdermal patches but do not specifically address the unique risks associated with Fentanyl patches.

3. While caring for a client receiving IV heparin, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet count, is a known adverse effect associated with heparin therapy. It can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and should be closely monitored during treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension is not typically associated with heparin use; hyperglycemia is not a common adverse effect of heparin; leukopenia is not a primary side effect of heparin therapy.

4. A client with early Parkinson's disease has been prescribed pramipexole. What adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hallucinations. Pramipexole can lead to hallucinations within 9 months of the initial dose, which may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Monitoring for hallucinations is crucial to ensure early detection and management to prevent any adverse outcomes. Choice B, increased salivation, is not a common adverse effect of pramipexole. Choice C, diarrhea, is not typically associated with pramipexole use. Choice D, discoloration of urine, is not a known adverse effect of pramipexole and is not typically a concern with this medication.

5. A client has a new prescription for Ranitidine to treat peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client prescribed Ranitidine to treat peptic ulcer disease is to avoid smoking while taking the medication. Smoking can interfere with the effectiveness of ranitidine and worsen ulcer symptoms. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to abstain from smoking to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Ranitidine with or without food does not significantly affect its effectiveness, there is no specific need to increase intake of dairy products, and expecting a yellow tinge to the skin is not a common side effect associated with Ranitidine.

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