ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to prevent injury?
- A. Perform weight-bearing exercises.
- B. Avoid crossing the legs beyond the midline.
- C. Avoid sitting in one position for prolonged periods.
- D. Splint the affected area.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises are crucial for preventing bone density loss in clients with osteoporosis. These exercises help strengthen bones and reduce the risk of fractures. Option B, avoiding crossing the legs beyond the midline, is not directly related to preventing injury in osteoporosis. Option C, avoiding sitting in one position for prolonged periods, is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not specifically address preventing injury in osteoporosis. Option D, splinting the affected area, is not a standard recommendation for preventing injury in osteoporosis.
2. A client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Limit fluid intake to 2 liters per day.
- B. Increase your intake of whole grains.
- C. Eat 3 large meals daily.
- D. Consume foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of whole grains.' Whole grains are beneficial for individuals with hypertension as they can help promote heart health. Whole grains are high in fiber, which can help lower blood pressure. Option A is incorrect as fluid intake should be adequate but not restricted to 2 liters per day. Option C is incorrect as it is recommended to have smaller, more frequent meals rather than 3 large meals to help manage hypertension. Option D is incorrect; although foods high in potassium can be beneficial for hypertension, the most appropriate dietary modification to include in this scenario is increasing whole grain intake.
3. A nurse is preparing to mix NPH and regular insulin in the same syringe. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Inject air into the NPH insulin vial.
- B. Withdraw the prescribed dose of regular insulin.
- C. Withdraw the prescribed dose of NPH insulin.
- D. Mix the two insulins in separate syringes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When mixing NPH and regular insulin in the same syringe, the nurse should first inject air into the NPH insulin vial. This action prevents contamination by allowing an easier withdrawal of the correct dose of NPH insulin after withdrawing the regular insulin. Withdrawing the prescribed dose of regular insulin (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not address the initial step of injecting air into the NPH vial. Similarly, withdrawing the prescribed dose of NPH insulin (Choice C) is incorrect as it skips the crucial first step. Mixing the two insulins in separate syringes (Choice D) is not ideal since combining them in one syringe is a common practice to reduce the number of injections for the patient.
4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for an arteriogram. Which of the following medications should the nurse instruct the client to discontinue 48 hours prior to the procedure?
- A. Atorvastatin
- B. Digoxin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Metformin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Metformin. Metformin should be discontinued 48 hours before an arteriogram due to the risk of lactic acidosis. Atorvastatin (Choice A) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not typically contraindicated before an arteriogram. Digoxin (Choice B) is a medication used for heart conditions and does not need to be discontinued before an arteriogram. Nifedipine (Choice C) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and angina, and it is not necessary to discontinue before the procedure.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure: 102/56 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate: 95/min.
- C. Sore throat.
- D. WBC count 14,000/mm^3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated WBC count should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an infection. Elevated white blood cell counts can be a sign of an underlying infection or inflammation. Monitoring and reporting abnormal laboratory values are essential for timely interventions. The other options, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and a sore throat, while important for overall assessment, are not directly related to the potential medical urgency indicated by an elevated WBC count.
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