a nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has osteoporosis which of the following instructions should the nurse include to prevent
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to prevent injury?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises are crucial for preventing bone density loss in clients with osteoporosis. These exercises help strengthen bones and reduce the risk of fractures. Option B, avoiding crossing the legs beyond the midline, is not directly related to preventing injury in osteoporosis. Option C, avoiding sitting in one position for prolonged periods, is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not specifically address preventing injury in osteoporosis. Option D, splinting the affected area, is not a standard recommendation for preventing injury in osteoporosis.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The adhesive bandage should be removed 3 days after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy to allow the incision to heal properly. Choice A is incorrect as the client should start with a clear liquid diet and advance to a regular diet as tolerated. Choice C is incorrect because the client should gradually increase activity levels as tolerated. Choice D is incorrect as the client should avoid tub baths and opt for showers to prevent infection and promote healing.

4. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of celiac disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is found in foods like rye and barley. Choice A is incorrect because oatmeal may contain gluten unless specified gluten-free. Choice C is incorrect as rye contains gluten. Choice D is incorrect as barley contains gluten.

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