a nurse is preparing to administer leucovorin to a client who has cancer and is receiving chemotherapy with methotrexate which of the following respon
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Proctored Pharmacology ATI

1. A client receiving chemotherapy with Methotrexate asks why Leucovorin is being given. Which of the following responses should the nurse use?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leucovorin, a folic acid derivative and an antagonist to Methotrexate, is given within 12 hours of high doses of Methotrexate to protect healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate. It helps to reduce the bone marrow suppression and gastrointestinal side effects caused by Methotrexate, supporting the client's overall well-being during chemotherapy treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Leucovorin does not reduce the risk of a transfusion reaction from Methotrexate, increase platelet production, prevent bleeding, or potentiate the cytotoxic effects of Methotrexate. Instead, Leucovorin works by rescuing healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate.

2. Which of the following is not an effect of the drug isoflurane?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isoflurane is not known to cause elevated lipid levels. Common effects of isoflurane include nausea, increased blood flow to the brain, and decreased respiratory function. Elevated lipid levels are not typically associated with the administration of isoflurane, making choice A the correct answer.

3. A client is prescribed Propranolol for a dysrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should plan to take when administering Propranolol is to assist the client when sitting up or standing after taking the medication. Propranolol can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness upon sudden position changes. It is essential to help the client with position changes to prevent falls or injury. Holding Propranolol if the client's apical pulse is greater than 100/min (Choice A) is incorrect because Propranolol is often used to manage dysrhythmias and slowing down the heart rate. Administering Propranolol to decrease the client's blood pressure (Choice B) is not the primary indication for using this medication. Monitoring the client for hypokalemia due to the risk of Propranolol toxicity (Choice D) is not a direct effect of Propranolol; rather, it is more related to other medications like diuretics.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with hypokalemia. Choice B, serum calcium, is incorrect because Furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels. Choice C, serum sodium, is less commonly affected by Furosemide use. Choice D, serum magnesium, is not the primary electrolyte affected by Furosemide, although magnesium levels may be affected indirectly.

5. A client has a new prescription for Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take it with food.' Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can cause gastrointestinal upset, and taking it with food helps reduce the risk of stomach irritation. It should not be taken on an empty stomach. Maintaining good hydration is important to prevent kidney-related side effects, so maintaining a fluid restriction, as in choice B, is not appropriate. Additionally, stopping the medication when manifestations subside, as in choice D, is incorrect as antibiotics should be taken for the full prescribed course to ensure eradication of the infection and to prevent antibiotic resistance.

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