ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has severe anemia. Which of the following interventions will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction?
- A. Ensure that the client has a patent IV line before obtaining the blood product from the refrigerator.
- B. Obtain help from another healthcare provider to confirm the correct client and blood product.
- C. Take a complete set of vital signs before beginning the transfusion and periodically during the transfusion.
- D. Stay with the client for the first 15 to 30 minutes of the transfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain help from another healthcare provider to confirm the correct client and blood product. This action is crucial in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction, which is caused by ABO or Rh incompatibility. Verifying the correct client and blood product before the transfusion ensures that there are no errors in identification, reducing the risk of a potentially life-threatening reaction. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of transfusion safety but are not directly related to preventing acute hemolytic reactions. Ensuring a patent IV line, monitoring vital signs, and staying with the client are all essential during transfusion but do not specifically address the risk of ABO or Rh incompatibility reactions.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. How many mL/hr should the IV pump be set to deliver?
- A. 200 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 100 mL/hr
- D. 250 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV pump should be set to deliver 200 mL/hr to administer clindamycin 200 mg over 30 minutes. Choice A is correct because it provides the accurate flow rate needed for the administration of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not calculate the flow rate correctly based on the volume and time specified in the question.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication rapidly over 15 minutes.
- B. Monitor the client for hypertension during infusion.
- C. Administer a test dose before the full dose.
- D. Monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional is to monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome. Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse reaction to Vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is important to monitor the client for these symptoms to intervene promptly if they occur.
4. When should a blood sample be obtained for a peak serum level of gentamicin when administered by IV infusion for 1 hour at 0900?
- A. 1000
- B. 1030
- C. 1100
- D. 1130
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should obtain the blood sample for the peak serum level at 1030. This timing allows for 30 minutes to elapse after the completion of the 1-hour IV infusion, which is the recommended window for obtaining the peak serum level of gentamicin.
5. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia due to its mechanism of action. Hyperkalemia can cause muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should educate the client to monitor for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia while taking Spironolactone.
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