a nurse is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells prbcs for a client who has severe anemi which of the following in
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has severe anemia. Which of the following interventions will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain help from another healthcare provider to confirm the correct client and blood product. This action is crucial in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction, which is caused by ABO or Rh incompatibility. Verifying the correct client and blood product before the transfusion ensures that there are no errors in identification, reducing the risk of a potentially life-threatening reaction. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of transfusion safety but are not directly related to preventing acute hemolytic reactions. Ensuring a patent IV line, monitoring vital signs, and staying with the client are all essential during transfusion but do not specifically address the risk of ABO or Rh incompatibility reactions.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Sulfasalazine, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client with a new prescription for Sulfasalazine is to expect orange discoloration of urine and skin. Sulfasalazine can cause this harmless side effect, which does not necessitate discontinuation of the medication. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this expected outcome to prevent unnecessary concern or discontinuation of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not recommended with Sulfasalazine, as it can worsen certain side effects. Taking the medication with a full glass of milk is not necessary for Sulfasalazine administration. Expecting stools to be black and tarry is not an expected side effect of Sulfasalazine.

3. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker known to cause peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it can indicate the development of this side effect. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Choice D, Hypertension, is the condition Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.

4. A client with a history of preterm labor is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider because these are manifestations of preterm labor. This response demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of monitoring contractions and seeking appropriate medical attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluid intake, increasing activity, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor are not relevant actions in managing preterm labor or taking Terbutaline.

5. A client has a new prescription for Metoprolol to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Metoprolol, a medication used to treat hypertension, is to avoid sudden changes in position. Metoprolol can cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when moving from lying down to standing up, leading to dizziness and falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these adverse effects and promotes safety.

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