a nurse is preparing discharge information for a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus which of the following resources should the nurse provide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is preparing discharge information for a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following resources should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Food exchange lists from the American Diabetes Association are a reliable resource for meal planning in diabetes. They provide structured guidance on appropriate food choices and portion sizes. Choice A, personal blogs, may not always offer accurate and evidence-based information. Choice C, diabetes medication information from the Physicians' Desk Reference, is not directly related to meal planning. Choice D, food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine, while important for understanding nutritional content, may not provide the structured meal planning guidance needed for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.

3. What is the most important assessment for a patient post-op to monitor for complications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor vital signs. Post-operative patients need close monitoring of their vital signs to detect early signs of complications such as changes in blood pressure, heart rate, temperature, and respiratory rate. While monitoring the surgical site is also important for signs of infection, assessing vital signs takes precedence as it provides immediate information about the patient's overall condition. Checking blood glucose levels may be essential for specific patients but is not the primary assessment for monitoring post-op complications. Checking for abnormal breath sounds is important but falls secondary to monitoring vital signs as it indicates respiratory issues rather than providing a comprehensive assessment of the patient's condition.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a common finding in clients with ARDS as the body attempts to compensate for impaired gas exchange. Barrel-shaped chest (Choice A) is associated with conditions like COPD, not ARDS. Bradycardia (Choice B) is unlikely in ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanisms to improve oxygenation. Tracheal deviation (Choice D) is not typically seen in ARDS and is more suggestive of other respiratory conditions.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

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