ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing acute mania. What intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
- B. Withdraw TV privileges if the client does not attend group therapy.
- C. Place the client in seclusion during periods of anxiety.
- D. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods. During acute mania, individuals often experience high levels of energy, decreased need for sleep, and increased activity levels. Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods can help prevent exhaustion and promote better self-regulation. Choice B is incorrect because withdrawing TV privileges may not be directly related to managing acute mania. Choice C is incorrect as placing the client in seclusion can exacerbate feelings of anxiety and agitation. Choice D is incorrect as spending time in the day room may not address the need for rest and relaxation that is crucial during acute mania.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV
- B. Administer a hypotonic IV solution
- C. Encourage oral fluid intake
- D. Restrict oral fluid intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a sodium level of 125 mEq/L (hyponatremia), the nurse should administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV to help increase sodium levels. Choice B, administering a hypotonic IV solution, would further decrease the sodium level. Choice C, encouraging oral fluid intake, is contraindicated as it can dilute the sodium concentration further. Choice D, restricting oral fluid intake, could worsen the client's condition by leading to dehydration and further electrolyte imbalances.
3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Broccoli
- B. Bananas
- C. Cheddar cheese
- D. Whole wheat bread
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is an excellent source of calcium, which is essential for bone health. Calcium helps strengthen bones and reduces the risk of osteoporosis. Broccoli (choice A) is also a good source of calcium but not as high as cheddar cheese. Bananas (choice B) and whole wheat bread (choice D) do not provide significant amounts of calcium and are not as effective in preventing osteoporosis as cheddar cheese.
4. A client is 2 days postoperative following a hip replacement surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 88/min
- B. Redness and warmth in the calf
- C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
- D. Heart rate of 96/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Redness and warmth in the calf can indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication following hip replacement surgery. It is crucial to report this finding promptly for further evaluation and intervention. The other options, heart rates of 88/min and 96/min, are within normal limits for an adult and may not require immediate reporting. A urine output of 30 mL/hr is concerning for decreased kidney perfusion, but the priority in this case is the potential DVT due to its severe implications.
5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Heart rate of 82/min
- C. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
- D. Oxygen saturation 95%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.
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