ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A client with Ménière's disease is experiencing episodes of vertigo. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Maintain strict bed rest
- B. Restrict fluid intake to the morning hours
- C. Administer aspirin
- D. Provide a low sodium diet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Ménière's disease experiencing vertigo is to provide a low sodium diet. This helps reduce fluid retention, which can alleviate the symptoms of Ménière's disease. Maintaining strict bed rest is not necessary and can lead to deconditioning. Restricting fluid intake to the morning hours does not specifically address the underlying cause of Ménière's disease. Administering aspirin is not indicated for Ménière's disease and can potentially worsen symptoms.
2. What teaching should be provided to a patient following surgical removal of a cataract?
- A. Avoid NSAIDs
- B. Wear dark glasses while outdoors
- C. Creamy white drainage is normal
- D. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct teaching to provide to a patient following surgical removal of a cataract is to avoid NSAIDs. NSAIDs can increase the risk of bleeding at the surgical site, so it is important to steer clear of them. Choice B, wearing dark glasses while outdoors, may be recommended post-surgery to protect the eyes from bright light, but it is not the priority teaching in this case. Choice C, stating that creamy white drainage is normal, is not accurate as drainage from the eye should be monitored and reported. Choice D, reducing phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day, is unrelated to post-cataract surgery care and is not a necessary teaching point.
3. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Inspect the pin site every 4 hours
- B. Monitor the client's skin under the halo vest
- C. Ensure two personnel hold the halo device when repositioning the client
- D. Apply powder to the client's skin under the vest to decrease itching
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because while inspecting the pin site is important, it should be done more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as the halo device should be supported by the client's body weight, not personnel, when repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection.
4. A patient with hypokalemia is being monitored. What should the nurse assess for?
- A. Muscle weakness
- B. Flattened T waves
- C. Checking deep tendon reflexes
- D. Seizures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: A patient with hypokalemia is being monitored. What should the nurse assess for? Corrected Choice A: Muscle weakness Corrected Choice B: Flattened T waves Corrected Choice C: Checking deep tendon reflexes Corrected Choice D: Seizures Rationale: Hypokalemia is associated with muscle weakness due to the effect of low potassium levels on muscle function. Flattened T waves on an ECG are characteristic of hypokalemia but are not a direct assessment for the patient's condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes and seizures are not primary symptoms associated with hypokalemia, making them less relevant for monitoring a patient with this electrolyte imbalance.
5. What lab value should be prioritized for monitoring in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of their immune system. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of severe immunocompromise, necessitating close monitoring and potential intervention. Choices B, C, and D are less specific to HIV management and do not directly reflect the immune status in these patients. Hemoglobin levels are more relevant for assessing anemia, serum albumin levels for nutritional status, and white blood cell count for overall immune response, but none are as directly tied to HIV disease progression as the CD4 T-cell count.
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