Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is completing an incident report after a client fall. Which of the following competencies of Quality and Safety Education for Nurses is the professional demonstrating?

• A. Quality improvement
• B. Patient-centered care
• C. Evidence-based practice
• D. Informatics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Completing an incident report after a client fall aligns with the competency of quality improvement, which focuses on identifying system errors and implementing changes to improve patient outcomes and safety. Patient-centered care emphasizes involving patients in their care decisions, evidence-based practice involves integrating research and clinical expertise, and informatics involves using technology to improve patient care. In this scenario, the emphasis is on the process of improving quality and safety related to the incident.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Obtain the newborn's body temperature using a tympanic thermometer.
• B. FACES pain scale.
• C. Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds.
• D. Measure the newborn's head circumference over the eyebrows and below the occipital prominence.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the apical pulse in newborns is important to evaluate their cardiac function. The normal heart rate for a newborn is typically between 100-160 beats per minute. Auscultating the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds allows for an accurate assessment of the newborn's heart rate. This is a crucial component of the newborn assessment to ensure the baby's cardiovascular system is functioning within the expected range.

3. According to the principles of standard precautions, when should gloves be worn by healthcare providers?

• A. Providing a back massage
• B. Feeding a client
• C. Providing hair care
• D. Providing oral hygiene

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gloves should be worn when providing oral hygiene as it involves potential exposure to bodily fluids, aligning with the standard precautions to prevent the transmission of infections. Providing a back massage, feeding a client, and providing hair care do not typically involve direct exposure to bodily fluids, so wearing gloves is not necessary in these scenarios according to standard precautions.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health records of five clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome?

• A. A client who experienced a near-drowning incident
• B. A client following coronary artery bypass graft surgery
• C. A client who has a hemoglobin of 15.1 g/dL
• D. A client who has dysphagia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe lung condition that can be triggered by various factors such as near-drowning incidents, surgeries like coronary artery bypass graft, and underlying conditions like dysphagia. Hemoglobin levels do not directly influence the risk of developing ARDS. A hemoglobin level of 15.1 g/dL falls within the normal range and does not predispose an individual to ARDS.

5. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

• A. SaO2 95%
• B. Wheezing
• C. Retraction of sternal muscles
• D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

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