Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for pulmonary embolism?

• A. A client who has a BMI of 30
• B. A female client who is postmenopausal
• C. A client who has a fractured femur
• D. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postmenopausal status is not a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include obesity (BMI of 30 or higher), immobility such as having a fractured femur, and conditions like chronic atrial fibrillation that increase the risk of blood clot formation. While postmenopausal status may be associated with other health risks, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.

2. Which technique in physical examination is used to assess the movement of air through the tracheobronchial tree?

• A. Palpation
• B. Auscultation
• C. Inspection
• D. Percussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Auscultation. Auscultation is a technique in physical examination used to assess the movement of air through the tracheobronchial tree. During auscultation, healthcare providers listen to lung sounds using a stethoscope to detect abnormalities such as wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds, which can indicate conditions affecting the airways or lungs. Palpation (Choice A) involves feeling the body for abnormalities, Inspection (Choice C) involves visual examination, and Percussion (Choice D) involves tapping on the body to produce sounds that can help in assessing underlying structures, but they are not directly used to assess air movement through the tracheobronchial tree.

3. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?

• A. 15
• B. 60
• C. 10
• D. 30

Correct answer: B

Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.

4. A patient is kept off food and fluids for 10 hours before surgery. His oral temperature at 8 a.m. is 99.8°F (37.7°C). This temperature reading probably indicates:

• A. Infection
• B. Hypothermia
• C. Anxiety
• D. Dehydration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A patient being kept off food and fluids before surgery can lead to dehydration. Dehydration can cause a slight increase in body temperature, which could explain the elevated oral temperature reading of 99.8°F (37.7°C) in this scenario. Infections are more likely to cause higher fevers, hypothermia would present with a lower temperature, and anxiety typically does not directly affect body temperature in this manner.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of a new prescription of prednisone to a client who has COPD. The healthcare professional should not concentrate on which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Fluid retention
• D. Black, tarry stools

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering prednisone, a corticosteroid medication, to a client with COPD, the healthcare professional should be aware of potential adverse effects. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of prednisone use. The correct adverse effects to monitor for include hypokalemia, fluid retention, and gastrointestinal issues like black, tarry stools due to potential gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not concentrate on tachycardia but should focus on the other listed adverse effects when administering prednisone to a client with COPD.

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