ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for pulmonary embolism?
- A. A client who has a BMI of 30
- B. A female client who is postmenopausal
- C. A client who has a fractured femur
- D. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Postmenopausal status is not a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include obesity (BMI of 30 or higher), immobility such as having a fractured femur, and conditions like chronic atrial fibrillation that increase the risk of blood clot formation. While postmenopausal status may be associated with other health risks, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.
2. If a healthcare provider administers an injection to a patient who refuses, they have committed:
- A. Assault and battery
- B. Negligence
- C. Malpractice
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a healthcare provider administers treatment, such as an injection, against a patient's refusal or will, it constitutes assault and battery. Assault refers to the intentional act that causes a person to fear that they will be touched without consent, while battery involves the actual harmful or offensive contact. In this scenario, administering the injection without the patient's consent is both an assault (causing fear of unwanted contact) and a battery (unwanted physical contact). Therefore, the correct answer is 'Assault and battery.' Negligence refers to a failure to exercise the appropriate level of care expected in a situation, while malpractice involves professional negligence or misconduct.
3. When is sterile technique used?
- A. During strict isolation procedures
- B. After terminal disinfection is performed
- C. For invasive procedures
- D. When protective isolation is necessary
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sterile technique is utilized during invasive procedures to prevent the introduction of pathogens, minimizing the risk of infections. This strict approach ensures that the procedure is performed in a sterile environment, reducing the chances of contamination and subsequent complications.
4. A nurse manager is reviewing documentation with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following notations by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''OOB with assistance for breakfast''
- B. ''Given 2 mg MSO4 IM for report of pain''
- C. ''Dressing changed qd''
- D. ''Administered 8 units of regular insulin subcutaneously''
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer demonstrates proper documentation by specifying the action taken ('Administered'), the dose ('8 units'), the medication ('regular insulin'), and the route of administration ('subcutaneously'). This notation ensures clarity and accuracy in recording the nursing intervention, aligning with best practices in documentation.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?
- A. Bradypnea
- B. Pleural friction rub
- C. Petechiae
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.
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