Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for pulmonary embolism?

• A. A client who has a BMI of 30
• B. A female client who is postmenopausal
• C. A client who has a fractured femur
• D. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postmenopausal status is not a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include obesity (BMI of 30 or higher), immobility such as having a fractured femur, and conditions like chronic atrial fibrillation that increase the risk of blood clot formation. While postmenopausal status may be associated with other health risks, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.

2. While caring for a client in a clinic, a healthcare professional learns that the client woke up not recognizing their partner, surroundings, has chills, and chest pain worsening upon inspiration. What should be the healthcare professional's priority action?

• A. Obtain baseline vital signs and oxygen saturation.
• B. Obtain a sputum culture.
• C. Obtain a complete history from the client.
• D. Provide a pneumococcal vaccine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for the healthcare professional is to obtain the client's baseline vital signs and oxygen saturation. This will provide essential information on the client's current physiological status and help guide further assessment and intervention. Assessing the vital signs and oxygen saturation can help identify any immediate concerns like hypoxia or sepsis, which require prompt attention. While obtaining a complete history and considering a pneumococcal vaccine may be important in the overall care of the client, assessing the vital signs and oxygen saturation takes precedence to address the client's immediate physiological needs.

3. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?

• A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
• B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
• C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
• D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.

4. A client with depression reports taking St. John's wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following conditions as a result of an interaction between these substances?

• A. Serotonin syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Pseudoparkinsonism
• D. Acute dystonia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When St. John's wort, an herbal supplement, is taken with citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), there is a risk of serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome is a serious condition that can occur when there is an excess of serotonin in the body, leading to symptoms such as confusion, hallucinations, rapid heart rate, increased body temperature, and more. Monitoring for serotonin syndrome is crucial when these substances are taken together to prevent any potential harm to the client.

5. A patient requires augmentation of labor. Which of the following conditions should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to the use of oxytocin?

• A. Diabetes mellitus
• B. Shoulder presentation
• C. Postterm with oligohydramnios
• D. Chorioamnionitis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Postterm pregnancy with oligohydramnios is a contraindication for the use of oxytocin due to the increased risk of uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress. Oxytocin can further stress the fetus in this scenario, potentially leading to adverse outcomes. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to recognize this contraindication to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby during labor.

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