ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
1. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?
- A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
- B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
- C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
- D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.
2. What is the appropriate route of administration for insulin?
- A. Intramuscular
- B. Intradermal
- C. Subcutaneous
- D. Intravenous
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate route of administration for insulin is subcutaneous. Subcutaneous injections are commonly used for insulin administration due to the slower absorption rate compared to intramuscular or intravenous routes. This slower absorption rate allows for better control of blood glucose levels. Intramuscular administration is not ideal for insulin as it can lead to rapid absorption and fluctuations in blood sugar levels. Intradermal injections are shallow and used for skin testing rather than insulin administration. Intravenous administration of insulin is not recommended due to the rapid and unpredictable effects it can have on blood glucose levels.
3. Examples of patients suffering from impaired awareness include all of the following except:
- A. A semiconscious or overfatigued patient
- B. A disoriented or confused patient
- C. A patient who cannot care for themselves at home
- D. A patient demonstrating symptoms of drug or alcohol withdrawal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with impaired awareness may exhibit symptoms such as being semiconscious, overfatigued, disoriented, confused, or demonstrating symptoms of drug or alcohol withdrawal. A patient who cannot care for themselves at home does not necessarily indicate impaired awareness, as this could be due to physical limitations or lack of support, rather than a cognitive deficit.
4. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?
- A. Assessing clot formation potential
- B. Assessing bleeding risk
- C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
- D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.
5. A nurse manager is reviewing documentation with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following notations by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''OOB with assistance for breakfast''
- B. ''Given 2 mg MSO4 IM for report of pain''
- C. ''Dressing changed qd''
- D. ''Administered 8 units of regular insulin subcutaneously''
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer demonstrates proper documentation by specifying the action taken ('Administered'), the dose ('8 units'), the medication ('regular insulin'), and the route of administration ('subcutaneously'). This notation ensures clarity and accuracy in recording the nursing intervention, aligning with best practices in documentation.
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