Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?

• A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
• B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
• C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
• D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.

2. For abdominal inspection, in which of the following positions should a patient be placed?

• A. Prone
• B. Trendelenburg
• C. Supine
• D. Side-lying

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The supine position is ideal for abdominal inspection as it allows the healthcare provider to easily access and examine the abdomen. In the supine position, the patient lies flat on their back with arms at their sides, providing a clear view and access to the abdominal area for inspection.

3. Which of the following conditions may necessitate fluid restriction?

• A. Fever
• B. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
• C. Renal Failure
• D. Dehydration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Renal failure often necessitates fluid restriction to prevent fluid overload. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter and excrete excess fluids, leading to fluid accumulation in the body. Restricting fluid intake helps manage this condition by preventing further fluid buildup and complications such as edema and electrolyte imbalances.

4. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has dysphagia and a new dietary prescription. Which of the following should the healthcare professional NOT include in the plan of care?

• A. Have suction equipment available for use
• B. Feed the client thickened liquids
• C. Place food on the unaffected side of the client's mouth
• D. Assign an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client with dysphagia, it is crucial to ensure safe feeding practices. Assigning an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly may not be appropriate as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids, having suction equipment available, and placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth are all appropriate measures to support a client with dysphagia in safe eating and drinking.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

• A. Substernal retractions
• B. Hematuria
• C. Temperature 37.9�C (100.2�F)
• D. Sneezing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.

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