Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?

• A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
• B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
• C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
• D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.

2. A healthcare professional is completing an incident report after a client fall. Which of the following competencies of Quality and Safety Education for Nurses is the professional demonstrating?

• A. Quality improvement
• B. Patient-centered care
• C. Evidence-based practice
• D. Informatics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Completing an incident report after a client fall aligns with the competency of quality improvement, which focuses on identifying system errors and implementing changes to improve patient outcomes and safety. Patient-centered care emphasizes involving patients in their care decisions, evidence-based practice involves integrating research and clinical expertise, and informatics involves using technology to improve patient care. In this scenario, the emphasis is on the process of improving quality and safety related to the incident.

3. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion?

• A. Hemoglobinuria
• B. Chest pain
• C. Urticaria
• D. Distended neck veins

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hemoglobinuria is a characteristic sign of a hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion. Hemolytic reactions can lead to the destruction of red blood cells, causing the release of hemoglobin into the urine, which presents as hemoglobinuria. Chest pain, urticaria, and distended neck veins are not specific signs of a hemolytic reaction and may be associated with other conditions or reactions.

4. When is additional Vitamin C not required?

• A. Infancy
• B. Young adulthood
• C. Childhood
• D. Pregnancy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Vitamin C requirements are increased during infancy, childhood, and pregnancy due to growth and development. However, during young adulthood, the body generally requires a consistent amount of Vitamin C as it is not undergoing rapid growth or physiological changes that necessitate an increase in Vitamin C intake.

5. A client is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Prime IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
• B. Use a 24-gauge IV catheter
• C. Obtain filterless IV tubing
• D. Place blood in the warmer for 1 hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prior to administering a blood transfusion, it is essential to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent hemolysis of the blood cells. Using a smaller gauge IV catheter (e.g., 20 or 22 gauge) is recommended for blood transfusions to prevent hemolysis. Filterless IV tubing is contraindicated for blood transfusions as it does not have a filter to trap potential blood clots or debris. Warming blood is unnecessary and could lead to the development of bacteria in the blood product. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.

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