Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. What clinical finding does the nurse expect the client to exhibit?

• A. Crying
• B. Self-mutilation
• C. Immobile posturing
• D. Repetitive activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, clients commonly exhibit immobile posturing, where they may maintain a fixed position for extended periods. This could include holding rigid poses or remaining motionless. Choice A, 'Crying,' is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Choice B, 'Self-mutilation,' refers to a different behavior seen in some mental health conditions but is not a characteristic feature of catatonic schizophrenia. Choice D, 'Repetitive activities,' does not align with the typical presentation of catatonic schizophrenia, which is characterized by motor abnormalities such as immobility rather than engaging in purposeful repetitive movements.

2. Under the health services support area concept, how is the medical care under the MEDCOM divided?

• A. Six geographical regions of the United States with command authority in each region
• B. Five levels of health service support, each providing different levels of health care services
• C. Primary and secondary health care regions, each containing a MEDDAC or MEDCEN
• D. Eight geographical areas of responsibility designated as health services support regions, each of which is subdivided into two or more health service areas

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Under the health services support area concept, medical care under MEDCOM is divided into eight geographical areas of responsibility. Each of these areas is designated as a health services support region, and they are further subdivided into two or more health service areas. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe how the medical care under MEDCOM is divided.

3. The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?

• A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
• B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
• C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
• D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a sickle cell crisis, morphine is the preferred analgesic due to its potency and effectiveness in managing severe pain. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin is contraindicated in sickle cell disease due to its potential to cause a further decrease in blood flow. Choice B, Motrin (ibuprofen), is also not the ideal choice as NSAIDs can exacerbate renal complications in sickle cell patients. Choice C, Demerol (meperidine), is not recommended for sickle cell pain management due to its toxic metabolite accumulation which can cause seizures and other complications.

4. During the admission interview, which question should the nurse ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease?

• A. “Do you have trouble sitting for long periods of time?”
• B. “How often do you have a bowel movement and urinate?”
• C. “When you lie down do you feel throbbing in your abdomen?”
• D. “Have you experienced any problems having sexual intercourse?”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct question for the nurse to ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease during the admission interview is about any problems experienced during sexual intercourse. Aorto-iliac disease can lead to impaired blood flow to the pelvis and lower extremities, affecting sexual function. Therefore, it is essential to assess the client's sexual health in such cases. The other options, such as sitting for long periods of time, bowel movements and urination frequency, and throbbing sensation when lying down, are not directly related to the potential impact of aorto-iliac disease on sexual function. Hence, they are not the most pertinent questions to ask during the admission interview.

5. When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, what should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants work by inhibiting the blood's ability to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or bleeding gums is crucial to prevent complications. Elevated blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to oral anticoagulant use. Decreased blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common effect of oral anticoagulants. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not a typical side effect of oral anticoagulants and is not a primary concern when monitoring a patient on this medication.

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