Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. What clinical finding does the nurse expect the client to exhibit?

• A. Crying
• B. Self-mutilation
• C. Immobile posturing
• D. Repetitive activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, clients commonly exhibit immobile posturing, where they may maintain a fixed position for extended periods. This could include holding rigid poses or remaining motionless. Choice A, 'Crying,' is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Choice B, 'Self-mutilation,' refers to a different behavior seen in some mental health conditions but is not a characteristic feature of catatonic schizophrenia. Choice D, 'Repetitive activities,' does not align with the typical presentation of catatonic schizophrenia, which is characterized by motor abnormalities such as immobility rather than engaging in purposeful repetitive movements.

2. The nurse administers 2 units of salt-poor albumin to a client with portal hypertension and ascites. The nurse explains to the client that this is administered to:

• A. Provide nutrients
• B. Increase protein stores
• C. Elevate the circulating blood volume
• D. Divert blood flow away from the liver temporarily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevate the circulating blood volume. Albumin increases the circulating blood volume, which helps to reduce ascites and improve hemodynamics in clients with portal hypertension. Choice A is incorrect because salt-poor albumin is not primarily administered to provide nutrients. Choice B is incorrect because the main purpose of administering albumin is not to increase protein stores but to address fluid shifts. Choice D is incorrect because administering albumin does not divert blood flow away from the liver temporarily; instead, it helps improve blood volume and circulation.

3. When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, what should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Elevated blood glucose
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Signs of bleeding
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants work by inhibiting the blood's ability to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or bleeding gums is crucial to prevent complications. Elevated blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to oral anticoagulant use. Decreased blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common effect of oral anticoagulants. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not a typical side effect of oral anticoagulants and is not a primary concern when monitoring a patient on this medication.

4. During a physical assessment of a newborn, what finding should the nurse prioritize reporting?

• A. Head circumference of 40 cm
• B. Chest circumference of 32 cm
• C. Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp
• D. Heart rate of 160 bpm and respirations of 40/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a head circumference of 40 cm is unusually large for a newborn, which may indicate hydrocephalus or other abnormalities. Reporting this finding is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not as concerning during a newborn physical assessment. A chest circumference of 32 cm is within the normal range for a newborn. Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp are common findings in newborns and usually resolve without intervention. While a heart rate of 160 bpm and respirations of 40/min should be monitored, they are not as critical as an unusually large head circumference.

5. The system used at the division level and forward is comprised of six basic modules. Which module is staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses?

• A. Treatment squad
• B. Area support squad
• C. Medical service squad
• D. Forward surgical team

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Forward Surgical Team (FST). The FST is indeed staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses. This team is specifically trained and equipped to provide surgical intervention in austere environments where immediate medical care is needed. Choices A, B, and C do not match the personnel composition described in the question, making them incorrect. The Treatment squad typically focuses on patient care and recovery, the Area support squad provides logistical and administrative support, and the Medical service squad deals with broader medical services beyond surgical interventions.

Similar Questions