Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. What clinical finding does the nurse expect the client to exhibit?

• A. Crying
• B. Self-mutilation
• C. Immobile posturing
• D. Repetitive activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, clients commonly exhibit immobile posturing, where they may maintain a fixed position for extended periods. This could include holding rigid poses or remaining motionless. Choice A, 'Crying,' is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Choice B, 'Self-mutilation,' refers to a different behavior seen in some mental health conditions but is not a characteristic feature of catatonic schizophrenia. Choice D, 'Repetitive activities,' does not align with the typical presentation of catatonic schizophrenia, which is characterized by motor abnormalities such as immobility rather than engaging in purposeful repetitive movements.

2. Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of:

• A. Protein
• B. Sodium
• C. Cholesterol
• D. Fat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of fat because high-fat foods can trigger gallbladder symptoms such as pain and indigestion. While proteins, sodium, and cholesterol may also need to be moderated for overall health, reducing fat intake is particularly crucial for managing gallbladder issues.

3. Which of the following is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties at the various levels of health care?

• A. 68A30
• B. 68WM6
• C. Physician assistant
• D. 6.80E+21

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '68WM6'. The 68WM6 (Practical Nurse) is the primary enlisted personnel responsible for performing nursing care duties at various levels of health care. This choice is correct as it specifically identifies the enlisted personnel role related to nursing care. Choice A (68A30) is incorrect as it does not pertain to nursing care duties. Choice C (Physician assistant) is incorrect as physician assistants are not typically enlisted personnel. Choice D (6.80E+21) is incorrect as it is a numerical value and not a designation for enlisted personnel.

4. When a field medical element is not operational, it engages in training to achieve readiness for mobilization that involves all aspects of operation. Individuals must be proficient in their MOS/ASI and which of the following?

• A. Command and control procedures
• B. Computers and data processing
• C. Common soldier tasks
• D. Communications and automation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of field medical training for mobilization, proficiency in common soldier tasks is essential. This includes skills like first aid, navigation, marksmanship, and other fundamental military tasks. While command and control procedures, communications, and automation are important, common soldier tasks are specifically mentioned in the scenario as critical for achieving readiness and mobilization.

5. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Instruct the client to delay intercourse until menses
• B. Schedule the client for frequent pelvic sonograms
• C. Explain that the infusion therapy will take 21 days
• D. Discuss that this may cause an ectopic pregnancy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (Choice A) is not directly related to monitoring for ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (Choice C) is not relevant to monitoring for this specific complication. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (Choice D) is important, but it is not the most appropriate intervention for monitoring ovarian hyperstimulation.

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