a nurse is caring for a client who reports difficulty sleeping while in the hospital which of the following actions taken by the assistive personnel a
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A client reports difficulty sleeping while in the hospital. Which of the following actions taken by the assistive personnel (AP) while the client is sleeping should prompt the nurse to intervene?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because flushing the client's toilet after emptying the urinary catheter's drainage bag could disturb the client's rest. The nurse should intervene to ensure a restful environment for the client. Choices A, C, and D are not actions that would be disruptive to the client's sleep. Closing the door to the client's room, measuring vital signs routinely, and asking personnel in the hall to speak quietly are appropriate actions that do not directly disturb the client's rest.

2. A patient reports feeling dizzy when standing up. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the patient to sit down slowly. This intervention is appropriate for a patient experiencing dizziness when standing up, as it helps prevent falls due to orthostatic hypotension. Encouraging deep breaths (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of dizziness, which is related to postural changes. Instructing the patient to use a walker for support (Choice C) or teaching the patient how to change positions safely (Choice D) are not the most immediate and direct interventions to address the immediate risk of falling when feeling dizzy upon standing.

3. A patient with chronic kidney disease has been prescribed a low-protein diet. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the patient's protein intake closely. In patients with chronic kidney disease on a low-protein diet, monitoring protein intake is crucial to prevent complications such as malnutrition or inadequate nutrient intake. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority over monitoring protein intake. Monitoring intake and output (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the specific focus on protein intake. Educating the patient on the benefits of a low-protein diet (Choice C) is essential but not as immediate as monitoring the actual protein intake.

4. Which of the following is a common manifestation of opioid withdrawal?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors and increased blood pressure. During opioid withdrawal, individuals commonly experience symptoms such as tremors, increased blood pressure, and restlessness. Choice A, which suggests bradycardia and hypotension, is incorrect as opioid withdrawal often leads to tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and increased blood pressure. Choice C, severe muscle weakness and fatigue, is not a typical manifestation of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, severe hallucinations and delusions, is more characteristic of conditions like delirium tremens associated with alcohol withdrawal, rather than opioid withdrawal.

5. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

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