ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Rash on the face
- C. Yellow-tinged vision
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Yellow-tinged vision.' Yellow-tinged vision is a characteristic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating an overdose of the medication. This visual disturbance is a critical adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent serious complications.\n\nChoice A, 'Increased appetite,' is not typically associated with digoxin use and is not a common adverse effect.\n\nChoice B, 'Rash on the face,' is also not a common adverse effect of digoxin. Skin rash is not a typical manifestation of digoxin toxicity.\n\nChoice D, 'Weight gain,' is not a common adverse effect of digoxin. Weight gain is not a typical symptom of digoxin toxicity and is unlikely to be related to the medication.
2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Monitor the client's intake and output every 6 hours
- B. Administer furosemide to the client
- C. Check the client's IV infusion every 8 hours
- D. Offer the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.
4. What is the primary intervention for a client diagnosed with delirium?
- A. Provide a quiet and calm environment to minimize confusion
- B. Administer medication to reverse the symptoms of delirium
- C. Provide opportunities for social interaction to reduce isolation
- D. Encourage the client to remain physically active
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide a quiet and calm environment to minimize confusion. For clients diagnosed with delirium, creating a tranquil setting can help reduce agitation and disorientation. This intervention aims to decrease stimuli that may exacerbate symptoms. Administering medication (choice B) is not the primary intervention for delirium; it is usually reserved for specific underlying causes. While social interaction (choice C) and physical activity (choice D) are beneficial for overall well-being, they are not the primary interventions for managing delirium.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a hip fracture. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Hip pallor
- B. Leg abduction
- C. Muscle spasms
- D. Leg lengthening
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle spasms are a common finding in clients with hip fractures. The muscle spasms occur due to the body's natural response to the injury, causing involuntary contractions. Hip pallor (Choice A) is not typically associated with hip fractures. Leg abduction (Choice B) and leg lengthening (Choice D) are not typical findings in clients with hip fractures, as the fracture usually results in limited range of motion and shortening of the affected limb.
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