Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?

• A. The client has a do-not-resuscitate order.
• B. The client has a continuous IV of lactated Ringer's.
• C. The client was straight catheterized for 350 mL 2 hours ago.
• D. The client has Medicare insurance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

2. A nurse caring for a client under airborne precautions notes that the client is scheduled for a nuclear scan. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Planning to have the nuclear scan performed at the bedside
• B. Calling the nuclear medicine department and telling the technician that the test will have to be delayed until airborne precautions have been discontinued
• C. Asking the technicians in the nuclear scan department to wear masks
• D. Placing a surgical mask on the client for transport and for contact with other individuals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to place a surgical mask on the client for transport and for contact with other individuals when a patient under airborne precautions requires movement. This helps prevent the spread of infectious agents. Planning to have the nuclear scan at the bedside (Choice A) may not be feasible or appropriate. Calling the nuclear medicine department to delay the test (Choice B) may inconvenience the client and disrupt the scheduled procedure. Asking technicians in the nuclear scan department to wear masks (Choice C) does not provide adequate protection for others who may come into contact with the client outside the department.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which client first?

• A. A client who has pneumonia and a WBC count of 11,500/mm3 prescribed piperacillin
• B. A client who has renal failure and a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
• C. A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) prescribed atorvastatin
• D. A client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with renal failure and high potassium levels requires immediate attention because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac complications. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps lower the potassium levels. Choice A, the client with pneumonia and a high WBC count, although important, does not present an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C, the post-CABG client prescribed atorvastatin, and Choice D, the client with anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa, do not require immediate intervention compared to managing hyperkalemia in a client with renal failure.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a hip fracture. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Hip pallor
• B. Leg abduction
• C. Muscle spasms
• D. Leg lengthening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle spasms are a common finding in clients with hip fractures. The muscle spasms occur due to the body's natural response to the injury, causing involuntary contractions. Hip pallor (Choice A) is not typically associated with hip fractures. Leg abduction (Choice B) and leg lengthening (Choice D) are not typical findings in clients with hip fractures, as the fracture usually results in limited range of motion and shortening of the affected limb.

5. A nurse is assessing a client following a head injury and a brief loss of consciousness. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12
• B. Edematous bruise on the forehead
• C. Small drops of clear fluid in the left ear
• D. Pupils are 4 mm and reactive to light

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clear fluid draining from the ear may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which is a serious complication following a head injury. Reporting this finding is crucial as it may require immediate medical intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning as a CSF leak. A GCS score of 12 is relatively high, indicating a mild level of consciousness alteration. An edematous bruise on the forehead is a common physical finding after a head injury. Pupils that are 4 mm and reactive to light suggest normal pupillary function.

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