ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?
- A. The client has a do-not-resuscitate order.
- B. The client has a continuous IV of lactated Ringer's.
- C. The client was straight catheterized for 350 mL 2 hours ago.
- D. The client has Medicare insurance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.
2. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a new tracheostomy?
- A. Suction the tracheostomy as needed to maintain a patent airway.
- B. Monitor the patient's oxygen saturation.
- C. Provide humidified air to prevent drying of the airway.
- D. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the tracheostomy as needed to maintain a patent airway. After a tracheostomy procedure, the immediate concern is airway patency to prevent respiratory compromise. Suctioning helps clear secretions and maintains a clear airway, reducing the risk of respiratory distress. Monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation (choice B) is important but not the priority compared to ensuring a clear airway. Providing humidified air (choice C) and administering pain medication (choice D) are also essential aspects of care for a patient with a tracheostomy, but they are not the priority when immediate airway management is required.
3. What is the nurse's priority intervention for a patient who has developed a pressure ulcer?
- A. Apply a dressing to the ulcer.
- B. Reposition the patient every 2 hours.
- C. Provide the patient with pain medication.
- D. Clean the ulcer with normal saline.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to reposition the patient every 2 hours. Repositioning helps prevent the worsening of pressure ulcers by relieving pressure on affected areas and promoting blood circulation, which aids in healing. Applying a dressing (choice A) is important but not the priority compared to repositioning. Providing pain medication (choice C) is essential for comfort but does not address the root cause of the pressure ulcer. Cleaning the ulcer with normal saline (choice D) is part of wound care but does not take precedence over repositioning to prevent further tissue damage.
4. How is the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure evaluated?
- A. Checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement
- B. Assessing the patient's blood pressure and urine output
- C. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema
- D. Measuring the patient's heart rate and lung sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure is by checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement. Daily weights help to assess fluid retention changes, while improvement in lung sounds indicates reduced pulmonary congestion. Assessing blood pressure and urine output (Choice B) is important but does not directly evaluate the effectiveness of the diuretic. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema (Choice C) are valid indicators of diuretic effectiveness, but direct observation of daily weights and lung sounds is more specific. Measuring heart rate and lung sounds (Choice D) is relevant but does not directly assess the impact of the diuretic on fluid balance and pulmonary status.
5. When is removal of the restraints by the nurse appropriate?
- A. When medication that has been administered has taken effect
- B. When no acts of aggression are observed in the hour following the release of two extremity restraints
- C. When the nurse explores with the client the reasons for the angry and aggressive behavior
- D. When the client apologizes and tells the nurse that it will never happen again
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse can safely remove restraints once no aggressive behavior is observed after releasing two extremity restraints for an hour. Choice A is incorrect because the removal of restraints should be based on the client's behavior rather than just the effect of medication. Choice C is incorrect as exploring reasons for aggressive behavior should be done before or during the intervention, not as a condition for removing restraints. Choice D is incorrect since an apology from the client does not guarantee a change in behavior or indicate that it is safe to remove the restraints.
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