Nursing Elites

1. How can a healthcare provider prevent pressure ulcers in an immobile patient?

• A. Turn the patient every 4 hours.
• B. Provide the patient with a special mattress.
• C. Elevate the patient's legs to reduce pressure.
• D. Limit the patient's movement to reduce friction.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing the immobile patient with a special mattress is an effective way to prevent pressure ulcers. Special mattresses help distribute pressure evenly and reduce the risk of developing pressure ulcers by relieving pressure on sensitive areas. Turning the patient every 4 hours (Choice A) is a standard practice to prevent pressure ulcers but may not be as effective as using a special mattress. Elevating the patient's legs (Choice C) can help with circulation but may not directly prevent pressure ulcers. Limiting the patient's movement (Choice D) can lead to other complications and is not a recommended method for preventing pressure ulcers.

2. Which nursing action will most likely increase a patient's risk for developing a health care-associated infection?

• A. Uses a sterile bottled solution more than once within a 24-hour period.
• B. Uses surgical aseptic technique to suction an airway.
• C. Uses a clean technique for inserting a urinary catheter.
• D. Uses a cleaning stroke from the urinary meatus toward the rectum.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using a clean technique for inserting a urinary catheter increases the risk for healthcare-associated infections. Invasive procedures like catheter insertion require a sterile technique to prevent introducing pathogens into the urinary tract. Choices A and B demonstrate appropriate infection control measures by emphasizing the use of sterile or aseptic techniques. Choice D represents an incorrect technique that can lead to the introduction of bacteria from the rectum into the urinary tract, potentially causing infections.

3. A patient recovering from a stroke has difficulty swallowing. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Begin feeding the patient soft solids.
• B. Place the patient on NPO (nothing by mouth) status.
• C. Provide ice chips to help soothe the throat.
• D. Start the patient on a clear liquid diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the patient on NPO (nothing by mouth) status. Patients recovering from a stroke with difficulty swallowing are at high risk for aspiration, which can lead to serious complications like aspiration pneumonia. Therefore, the priority is to keep the patient on NPO until a thorough evaluation by a healthcare provider is completed. Choice A is incorrect as feeding the patient soft solids can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as providing ice chips may further compromise swallowing safety. Choice D is incorrect as starting the patient on a clear liquid diet can also increase the risk of aspiration in this scenario.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
• B. SaO2 94%
• C. Respiratory rate 8/min
• D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

• A. PT of 12 seconds
• B. aPTT of 70 seconds
• C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

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