a nurse is caring for a client who is taking spironolactone which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the prov
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.

2. What instruction should the healthcare provider include to minimize an adverse effect of Clomipramine for OCD in an adolescent client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Wear sunglasses when outdoors.' To minimize the anticholinergic effect of Clomipramine, the client should wear sunglasses when outdoors to reduce photophobia. This adverse effect is common with tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) use. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Checking temperature daily, timing of medication intake, or adding extra calories to the diet are not directly related to minimizing adverse effects of Clomipramine.

3. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a nitrate-free period of 10 to 12 hours during each 24-hour period, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because cutting the patch could alter the dose delivery and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as removing the patch for 30 minutes when a headache occurs may not be effective in managing symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin patches are usually applied once daily, not every 48 hours.

4. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which of the following preexisting conditions can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ketamine is known to produce psychological effects, such as hallucinations. Therefore, individuals with schizophrenia are at increased risk of experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms if given Ketamine, making it a contraindication for its use as an intravenous anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for Ketamine use as an intravenous anesthetic.

5. A client has a new prescription for methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. The nurse should expect to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is bone marrow suppression (Choice C). Methotrexate can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in adverse effects such as anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Monitoring for signs of decreased blood cell counts is essential to prevent complications and adjust treatment as needed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insomnia, hypertension, and constipation are not typically associated with methotrexate use in the treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis.

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