Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 90 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Increase oxytocin infusion.
• B. Decrease oxytocin infusion.
• C. Maintain oxytocin infusion.
• D. Discontinue oxytocin infusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. With contractions occurring every 90 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds, the contractions are too frequent and prolonged, which can lead to uterine rupture or fetal distress. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, potentially causing harm to the mother and fetus. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion might not be sufficient to address the issue, making discontinuation the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of both the client and the baby.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• B. Respiratory rate of 16/min.
• C. Heart rate of 90/min.
• D. WBC count of 15,000/mm3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm3 is elevated, which may indicate infection, a common concern postoperatively. An elevated WBC count suggests the body is fighting an infection, and prompt reporting to the provider is essential for further evaluation and treatment. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the immediate postoperative period, respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range, and a heart rate of 90/min is also within an acceptable range postoperatively. Therefore, these findings do not raise immediate concerns that necessitate reporting to the provider.

3. A client is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.
• B. Massage the client's legs every 4 hours.
• C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
• D. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take for a client at risk for developing DVT is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation and reducing the risk of DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of DVT due to immobility. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours (Choice B) can dislodge blood clots and is contraindicated in DVT prevention. While administering anticoagulants as prescribed (Choice D) is a treatment for DVT, it is not a preventive measure for a client at risk.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased bilirubin levels
• B. Decreased prothrombin time
• C. Decreased albumin levels
• D. Increased prothrombin time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, the liver is unable to produce clotting factors efficiently, leading to impaired clotting function. Therefore, an increased prothrombin time is expected in cirrhosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Decreased bilirubin levels are not typically seen in cirrhosis; prothrombin time is usually increased, not decreased; and albumin levels are often decreased in cirrhosis due to reduced synthetic liver function.

5. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis
• B. Administer flumazenil to the client
• C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior
• D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam ingestion, flumazenil is the antidote. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to administer flumazenil to the client. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (Choice C) is important but not the next immediate action. Initiating seizure precautions (Choice D) is not the priority as the client's airway has already been secured.

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