Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving long-term aspirin therapy. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hemorrhagic stroke
• B. Thromboembolic stroke
• C. Iron deficiency anemia
• D. Neutropenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemorrhagic stroke. Long-term aspirin therapy can lead to hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which can predispose the individual to bleeding complications, including hemorrhagic stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin therapy is more likely to cause bleeding complications rather than thromboembolic events, iron deficiency anemia, or neutropenia.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Clopidogrel, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by reducing the formation of blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's platelet count to assess for potential bleeding complications. A decrease in platelet count could indicate a risk of bleeding, which is an adverse effect associated with Clopidogrel therapy. Monitoring other laboratory values like white blood cell count, hemoglobin, and blood glucose is important for assessing overall health status but is not directly related to the potential adverse effects of Clopidogrel.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

• A. Butorphanol has a lower risk of abuse than morphine.
• B. Butorphanol causes a lower incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
• C. Butorphanol can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
• D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.

4. A patient on a medical-surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness?

• A. Reduced cardiac function
• B. First-pass effect
• C. Reduced hepatic function
• D. Increased gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In older adults, reduced hepatic function can lead to prolonged effects of medications metabolized by the liver. This prolonged effect may result in drowsiness the next morning. Adjusting the dosage of the hypnotic medication may be necessary for this client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Reduced cardiac function (Choice A) is not typically associated with drowsiness due to medication effects. The first-pass effect (Choice B) relates to the initial metabolism of a drug in the liver before reaching systemic circulation, which is not directly linked to drowsiness the next morning. Increased gastric motility (Choice D) does not commonly cause drowsiness as described in the scenario.

5. A client with cirrhosis is about to receive a dose of lactulose. The client questions the need for the medication, stating they are not constipated. The nurse should explain that lactulose is used in cirrhosis to reduce levels of which component in the bloodstream?

• A. Glucose
• B. Ammonia
• C. Potassium
• D. Bicarbonate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is administered to clients with cirrhosis to lower blood ammonia levels, thus aiding in the prevention of hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels in cirrhosis can lead to cognitive impairment and hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, the correct answer is B (Ammonia). Glucose (Choice A) is not the component targeted by lactulose in cirrhosis. Potassium (Choice C) and Bicarbonate (Choice D) are not directly affected by lactulose administration in cirrhosis.

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