a nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a tonic clonic seizure which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse should turn the client onto their side. This action helps maintain an open airway by allowing saliva or any vomitus to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of aspiration. Inserting a tongue depressor (choice A) is incorrect as it can cause injury to the client's mouth and is not recommended during a seizure. Restraining the client's arms and legs (choice B) can lead to physical harm and should be avoided. Placing the client in a prone position (choice D) is dangerous as it can obstruct the airway and hinder breathing, which is not suitable for a client experiencing a seizure.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because albuterol is used to treat shortness of breath during an asthma attack. Choice A is incorrect as albuterol is a rescue medication used during an asthma attack, not for prevention. Choice C is incorrect as albuterol should not be taken with daily vitamins. Choice D is incorrect as albuterol is not typically taken at bedtime for asthma prevention.

5. A client with thrombocytopenia is receiving care from a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with thrombocytopenia, the platelet count is low, leading to a risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener is essential to prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, which can reduce the risk of bleeding episodes. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is a good oral hygiene practice but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is related to infection control but does not address the specific risk of bleeding in thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving the client raw vegetables (Choice D) is important in clients with neutropenia to prevent infections, not in thrombocytopenia.

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