ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client with Diabetes is experiencing Nausea due to Gastroparesis. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Lubiprostone
- B. Metoclopramide
- C. Bisacodyl
- D. Loperamide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Metoclopramide, a dopamine antagonist, is indicated for treating nausea and increasing gastric motility. In the context of diabetic gastroparesis, it can alleviate bloating and nausea by enhancing gastric emptying. Lubiprostone (Choice A) is a chloride channel activator used for chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation. Bisacodyl (Choice C) is a stimulant laxative primarily used for constipation. Loperamide (Choice D) is an anti-diarrheal agent and would not be appropriate for treating nausea and gastroparesis.
2. A client has a new prescription for Adalimumab for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Based on the route of administration of Adalimumab, which of the following should the nurse plan to monitor?
- A. The vein for thrombophlebitis during IV administration.
- B. The subcutaneous site for redness following injection.
- C. The oral mucosa for ulceration after oral administration.
- D. The skin for irritation following removal of transdermal patch.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Adalimumab is administered subcutaneously for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Injection-site reactions such as redness and swelling are common. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the subcutaneous site for redness following the injection to assess for potential adverse effects.
3. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should avoid which of the following foods?
- A. Salt substitutes
- B. Apples
- C. Chicken
- D. Bananas
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Clients prescribed spironolactone should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium. Increased potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of spironolactone.
4. A client has a new prescription for Filgrastim to treat neutropenia. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. This medication will help increase your white blood cell count.
- B. This medication will help reduce your risk of infection.
- C. This medication will help improve your red blood cell count.
- D. This medication will help increase your platelet count.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is that 'This medication will help increase your white blood cell count.' Filgrastim is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically neutrophils, to increase the white blood cell count. This increase in white blood cells helps reduce the risk of infections in clients with neutropenia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Filgrastim specifically targets white blood cells, not red blood cells or platelets.
5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Urinary retention
- B. Tachypnea
- C. Hypertension
- D. Irritating cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.
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