Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following lab values indicates the treatment is effective?

• A. Hct 43%
• B. WBC 8,000/uL
• C. Albumin 4.2 g/dL
• D. Calcium 9.4 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Albumin 4.2 g/dL. Albumin is a protein produced by the liver and is a key indicator of nutritional status. In a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), an increase in albumin level indicates that the treatment is effective in providing adequate nutrition support. Hct (hematocrit), WBC (white blood cell count), and calcium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN in this context.

2. Which medical condition is characterized by symptoms such as oral candidiasis, hairy leukoplakia, herpetic ulcerations, Kaposi's sarcoma, xerostomia, and severe periodontal disease?

• A. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
• B. Acute Leukemia
• C. Anorexia Nervosa
• D. Bulimia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is known for a variety of oral manifestations such as oral candidiasis, hairy leukoplakia, herpetic ulcerations, Kaposi's sarcoma, xerostomia, and severe periodontal disease. These symptoms are not typically associated with acute leukemia, anorexia nervosa, or bulimia. Acute leukemia usually presents with symptoms like fatigue, frequent infections, and easy bruising. Anorexia nervosa and bulimia are eating disorders, thus their primary symptoms are primarily associated with eating habits and body weight, not oral health.

3. Which systemic disease is best controlled with the DASH diet, monitoring blood pressure, limiting sodium, alcohol, and caffeine, reducing stress, and losing weight?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Diabetes mellitus
• C. Parkinson's disease
• D. Anemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. The DASH diet is specifically designed to control hypertension by reducing sodium intake, managing blood pressure, and promoting overall cardiovascular health. Choice B, Diabetes mellitus, is managed through monitoring blood sugar levels and a balanced diet rich in whole grains, fruits, and vegetables. Choice C, Parkinson's disease, is a neurological disorder that is not primarily managed through diet modifications. Choice D, Anemia, is a condition characterized by a lack of healthy red blood cells and is typically managed by addressing the underlying cause and sometimes iron supplementation, not by the methods mentioned in the question.

4. What is a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency?

• A. Hair loss
• B. Night blindness
• C. Bone pain
• D. Rashes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone pain. Vitamin D deficiency often leads to bone pain and weakness as it plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health by aiding in the absorption of calcium. Hair loss (choice A) is not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency. Night blindness (choice B) is typically associated with vitamin A deficiency, not vitamin D deficiency. Rashes (choice D) are not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency.

5. What activities best describe the work of the placenta during pregnancy?

• A. surrounding and cushioning the fetus
• B. combining maternal and fetal blood stores to exchange nutrients
• C. producing hormones that maintain the pregnancy
• D. absorbing vitamins and minerals that can be transferred to the fetus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The placenta plays a crucial role in producing hormones that are necessary for maintaining pregnancy, supporting fetal development, and preparing the mother's body for childbirth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the placenta's primary function is not to surround and cushion the fetus, combine blood stores for nutrient exchange, or absorb vitamins and minerals. While the placenta does facilitate the exchange of nutrients and oxygen between the mother and fetus, its hormone production is the most critical function during pregnancy.

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