a nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with histrionic personality disorder which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect
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ATI Mental Health Practice B

1. A client has been diagnosed with histrionic personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with histrionic personality disorder often display attention-seeking behaviors as a way to draw focus and validation from others. This behavior may manifest as exaggerated emotions and dramatic expressions to maintain the spotlight. While seductive behavior and dependency on others are potential characteristics of histrionic personality disorder, attention-seeking behavior is the hallmark trait. Therefore, the correct answer is attention-seeking behavior (Choice A). Dramatic expressions of emotion (Choice B) can be a feature of histrionic personality disorder, but it is not as characteristic as attention-seeking behavior. Seductive behavior (Choice C) may also be present in individuals with histrionic personality disorder, but it is not the primary behavior to expect. Dependency on others (Choice D) is not a core feature of histrionic personality disorder, although individuals with this disorder may seek attention and validation from others.

2. A client is being treated for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which intervention should be included in the care plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allowing the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment is a common therapeutic approach for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Allowing the client to engage in rituals can help reduce anxiety by providing temporary relief. It is a part of exposure therapy, where the individual is gradually exposed to anxiety-provoking situations. As treatment progresses, the focus shifts to gradually reducing the frequency and intensity of rituals through interventions like exposure and response prevention therapy. Discouraging the client from performing rituals (Choice A) is not recommended as it may increase anxiety and resistance to treatment. Encouraging the client to focus on their compulsions (Choice C) may reinforce the behavior rather than helping to decrease it. Isolating the client (Choice D) is not therapeutic and can lead to feelings of abandonment and worsen symptoms.

3. Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.

4. Which of the following are therapeutic communication techniques that a healthcare provider can use when interacting with clients? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Therapeutic communication techniques aim to promote a therapeutic relationship and client well-being. Using noise is a non-therapeutic technique that can hinder effective communication. Offering self, providing reassurance, and using silence are considered therapeutic. However, giving advice is often seen as non-therapeutic as it can diminish client autonomy and hinder problem-solving skills.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

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