ATI RN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client with asthma has developed viral pharyngitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Petechiae on the chest and abdomen
- B. WBC 16,000/mm3
- C. Negative throat culture
- D. Severe hyperemia of pharyngeal mucosa
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Viral pharyngitis is typically caused by a virus, not bacteria, so a negative throat culture is an expected finding. The presence of petechiae on the chest and abdomen (Choice A) is not a common manifestation of viral pharyngitis. Elevated WBC count (Choice B) is more indicative of a bacterial infection rather than a viral one. Severe hyperemia of the pharyngeal mucosa (Choice D) is a possible finding in pharyngitis but is not specific to viral pharyngitis.
2. A client with asthma is being taught about peak flow meter use. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will use my peak flow meter every morning.
- B. I will use my peak flow meter when I feel short of breath.
- C. I will use my peak flow meter before using my inhaler.
- D. I will use my peak flow meter after using my inhaler.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using the peak flow meter every morning is crucial for monitoring asthma control and making timely treatment adjustments. While using the meter when feeling short of breath or before using an inhaler can also be beneficial, the daily morning routine helps in consistent management of asthma symptoms.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of this disease?
- A. Asymmetrical joint involvement
- B. Heberden's nodes
- C. Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes
- D. Pain that worsens with activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes is a hallmark symptom of rheumatoid arthritis. This prolonged morning stiffness is typically a distinguishing feature of rheumatoid arthritis compared to other types of arthritis, making it the most characteristic assessment finding for this disease.
4. A client who had coronary artery bypass grafting yesterday needs care. What actions can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (SATA)
- A. administer antibiotics every 4 hrs
- B. Encourage the client to use the spirometer every 4 hours.
- C. Ensure the client wears TED hose or sequential compression devices.
- D. Have the client rate pain on a 0-to-10 scale and report to the nurse.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse can delegate tasks such as assisting the client to get up in the chair or ambulate to the bathroom, applying TED hose or sequential compression devices, and taking/recording vital signs to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Using the spirometer should be encouraged every hour the day after surgery by the nurse. Assessing pain using a 0-to-10 scale is a nursing assessment. However, if the client reports pain, the UAP should inform the nurse for a more detailed assessment.
5. A client in an emergency department has a sucking chest wound resulting from a gunshot. The client has a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, a weak pulse rate of 118/min, and a respiratory rate of 40/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A.
- B. Remove the dressing to inspect the wound
- C. Prepare to insert a central line
- D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a sucking chest wound, the priority is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula to improve oxygenation. The client's blood pressure, weak pulse rate, and elevated respiratory rate indicate hypovolemic shock, so increasing oxygen supply is crucial. Raising the foot of the bed, removing the dressing, or preparing to insert a central line are not immediate actions needed for a client with a sucking chest wound and signs of shock.
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