Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Stridor
• B. Copious oral secretions
• C. Hoarseness
• D. Sore throat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that can indicate airway obstruction. It is a serious finding that requires immediate attention as it may lead to respiratory compromise. Copious oral secretions, hoarseness, and sore throat are common but expected findings after endotracheal tube removal and do not typically require urgent intervention.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes. What is the most important aspect of teaching the nurse should focus on?

• A. The importance of regular exercise
• B. Proper administration of insulin
• C. Maintaining a low-carbohydrate diet
• D. Recognizing signs of hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Proper administration of insulin is crucial for clients with type 1 diabetes as they are dependent on insulin for blood glucose control.

3. While caring for a client with extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest, which risk should the nurse prioritize for assessment and intervention?

• A. Airway obstruction
• B. Infection
• C. Fluid imbalance
• D. Paralytic ileus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client sustains burns to the head, neck, or chest, the risk of airway obstruction is a critical concern due to potential swelling, inflammation, or inhalation injury. Any compromise to the airway can lead to severe respiratory distress or failure. Early recognition and intervention to maintain a clear airway are essential to prevent life-threatening complications in burn patients.

4. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
• B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
• C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
• D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.

5. While providing teaching to a client who is postoperative following coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery and is receiving opioid medications to manage discomfort, which of the following desired effects of medications should the nurse identify as most important for the client's recovery?

• A. It decreases the client's level of anxiety.
• B. It facilitates the client's deep breathing.
• C. It enhances the client's ability to sleep.
• D. It reduces the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the postoperative period following CABG surgery, deep breathing exercises are essential to prevent complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia. Opioid medications can depress the respiratory system, making it crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of deep breathing to maintain optimal lung function. While managing pain and anxiety are important, facilitating deep breathing takes precedence in this situation to promote effective recovery and prevent respiratory complications.

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