ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypomagnesemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as low potassium can result in various complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia is high sodium levels, which are not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypercalcemia is elevated calcium levels and hypomagnesemia is low magnesium levels, which are not the primary electrolyte imbalances associated with furosemide.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.
3. Which lab value is essential for a patient receiving warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor sodium levels
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Monitor platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the INR (International Normalized Ratio) for a patient receiving warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial to assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B), potassium levels (choice C), or platelet count (choice D) is not specifically essential for patients on warfarin therapy and does not provide direct information on the drug's anticoagulant effects.
4. A client at 14 weeks gestation reports feelings of ambivalence about being pregnant. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Describe your feelings to me about being pregnant.
- B. You should discuss your feelings with your provider.
- C. Have you discussed these feelings with your partner?
- D. When did you start having these feelings?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to use open-ended questions that allow the client to explore and express their feelings. Choice A encourages the client to describe their feelings, fostering open communication and providing an opportunity for the client to express themselves freely. Choices B and C do not directly address the client's feelings and may not promote open communication. Choice D focuses on the timing of the feelings rather than exploring the feelings themselves, making it a less therapeutic response.
5. What is the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administer bronchodilators
- B. Administer corticosteroids
- C. Provide supplemental oxygen
- D. Start IV fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators as the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve airflow, which is crucial in managing the acute respiratory distress in asthma. Corticosteroids may be used subsequently to reduce inflammation, but in the acute phase, bronchodilators take precedence. Providing supplemental oxygen is important but may not address the underlying bronchoconstriction characteristic of an asthma attack. Starting IV fluids is not a priority in managing an acute asthma attack unless indicated for specific reasons such as dehydration.
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