a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following electrolyte imbala
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as low potassium can result in various complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia is high sodium levels, which are not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypercalcemia is elevated calcium levels and hypomagnesemia is low magnesium levels, which are not the primary electrolyte imbalances associated with furosemide.

2. A client has thrombocytopenia. What action should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse when caring for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is characterized by a low platelet count, leading to increased bleeding tendencies. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, reducing the likelihood of straining during bowel movements and subsequent bleeding. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is unrelated to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (choice B) pertains more to infection control than addressing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (choice D) is not directly associated with managing thrombocytopenia symptoms.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving TPN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.' When caring for a client receiving TPN, it is crucial to maintain aseptic technique to prevent infections. Changing the central line dressing with sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the client's system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours, monitoring blood glucose, and monitoring urine output are important aspects of care but are not directly related to preventing infection in clients receiving TPN.

4. A healthcare provider is planning to delegate client assignments to the assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the healthcare provider to delegate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Transporting a client to x-ray.' This task is appropriate for delegation to assistive personnel as it involves transferring the client safely from one location to another, which does not require the specialized skills of a healthcare provider. Adjusting the flow rate of the client's oxygen tank (Choice A) involves making clinical decisions that should be done by a licensed healthcare provider. Collecting a urine sample (Choice B) and measuring the client's pain level (Choice C) require critical thinking and assessment skills that are typically within the scope of practice of licensed healthcare providers, not assistive personnel.

5. A client who is 1 day postpartum plans to breastfeed. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using both breasts at each feeding helps ensure adequate milk production and consumption. Option A is incorrect because breastfeeding should be done on demand rather than following a strict schedule. Option B is incorrect as limiting feeding time to 5 minutes per breast may not provide the baby with enough milk. Option D is also incorrect as pumping should not replace direct breastfeeding unless there is a specific medical reason to do so.

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