a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following electrolyte imbala
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as low potassium can result in various complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia is high sodium levels, which are not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypercalcemia is elevated calcium levels and hypomagnesemia is low magnesium levels, which are not the primary electrolyte imbalances associated with furosemide.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a gastrectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a serious condition post-gastrectomy. Hypoxemia can lead to inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues, potentially causing complications like organ dysfunction or failure. This finding requires immediate attention to prevent further deterioration. The heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are within normal ranges for a client post-gastrectomy, so they do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

3. A nurse is reviewing laboratory data for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased creatinine. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to filter waste effectively, leading to a buildup of creatinine in the blood. This results in increased creatinine levels in laboratory tests. Choice B, increased hemoglobin, is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice C, increased bicarbonate, is also not a common finding in chronic kidney disease; in fact, metabolic acidosis with decreased bicarbonate levels is more common. Choice D, increased calcium, is not expected in chronic kidney disease; instead, calcium levels may be low due to impaired kidney function.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber helps alleviate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome by promoting regular bowel movements. Choice B is incorrect as increasing intake of milk products may exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with irritable bowel syndrome who are lactose intolerant. Choice C is incorrect as fructose corn syrup may worsen symptoms due to its high fructose content, which can be poorly absorbed in some individuals with irritable bowel syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as increasing foods high in gluten may be problematic for individuals with irritable bowel syndrome who have gluten sensitivity or celiac disease.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for preventing pressure ulcers in a client at risk is to turn the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and preventing tissue damage. Using a donut-shaped cushion can actually increase pressure on the skin and worsen the risk of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is beneficial for preventing aspiration in some cases but does not directly address pressure ulcer prevention. Massaging reddened areas can further damage the skin and increase the risk of pressure ulcer development by causing friction and shearing forces.

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