Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a low-sodium diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Pickles
• B. Fresh vegetables
• C. Canned soup
• D. Smoked salmon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fresh vegetables are an excellent choice for clients on a low-sodium diet as they are naturally low in sodium. Pickles, canned soup, and smoked salmon are high in sodium and should be avoided by clients following a low-sodium diet. Pickles are pickled in a brine solution high in sodium, canned soup usually contains added salt for preservation, and smoked salmon is a processed food that typically has a high sodium content.

2. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?

• A. Supine position
• B. Semi-Fowler's position
• C. Trendelenburg position
• D. Prone position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the dose of warfarin?

• A. PT 28 seconds
• B. INR 1.2
• C. aPTT 40 seconds
• D. Fibrinogen 350 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating inadequate anticoagulation. Therefore, the client would require an increase in the dose of warfarin to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of the need for a dose increase in warfarin therapy. PT of 28 seconds is within the therapeutic range, aPTT of 40 seconds is also within the normal range, and fibrinogen level of 350 mg/dL does not provide information about the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Productive cough with green sputum
• C. Cyanosis of the lips and nail beds
• D. Mild shortness of breath

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cyanosis of the lips and nail beds. Cyanosis is a late sign of hypoxia and indicates severe oxygen deprivation, requiring immediate intervention in clients with pneumonia. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, productive cough with green sputum, and mild shortness of breath are common findings in clients with pneumonia and may not require immediate intervention unless they worsen or are accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
• B. aPTT 60 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
• D. INR 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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