ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A client has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse allow the client to have?
- A. Lemon sherbet
- B. Milkshake
- C. Vanilla ice cream
- D. Grape juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Grape juice is the correct choice for a clear liquid diet because it is a liquid that is transparent and does not contain any solid particles. Lemon sherbet, milkshake, and vanilla ice cream are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet as they all contain solid particles or are not in liquid form.
2. A nurse manager is teaching a group of employees about standards for Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN). Which of the following statements by an employee should the nurse manager identify as an example of the QSEN concept of quality improvement?
- A. We should start tracking how soon clients are discharged after laparoscopic versus open surgery.
- B. We should involve our clients' partners in care planning as much as possible.
- C. We should be sure to log out of the computers immediately following documentation.
- D. We should provide change-of-shift report as a team, including the assistive personnel who assisted with care.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Involving partners in care planning is a quality improvement strategy that aligns with QSEN principles. This choice reflects patient-centered care and collaboration, which are essential elements of quality improvement. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to quality improvement concepts. Tracking discharge times, logging out of computers, and providing change-of-shift reports are important practices but not specifically focused on quality improvement.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a client with heart failure. Which of the following medications should the nurse clarify with the provider?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Digoxin
- D. Ibuprofen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can worsen heart failure due to its effects on renal function and fluid retention. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the use of Ibuprofen with the provider. Choices A, B, and C (Furosemide, Spironolactone, and Digoxin) are commonly prescribed medications for heart failure that help manage symptoms and improve cardiac function, so they do not need clarification in this scenario.
4. What are the common side effects of opioid analgesics, and how should they be managed?
- A. Drowsiness and dizziness, ensuring safety precautions
- B. Respiratory depression, ensuring adequate ventilation
- C. Constipation and nausea, managed with stool softeners
- D. Nausea and vomiting, managing with antiemetics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Common side effects of opioid analgesics include drowsiness and dizziness. These side effects can impair a person's ability to operate machinery or drive safely. To manage these side effects, it is essential to advise patients to avoid activities that require alertness until they know how the medication affects them. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because respiratory depression, constipation, and nausea are also common side effects of opioids, but they are not the primary side effects being asked for in this question.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for amoxicillin clavulanate to treat pharyngitis. Which statement indicates understanding?
- A. I will double my dose if I miss one
- B. I should take this medication on an empty stomach between meals
- C. I will take the medication until my sore throat goes away
- D. I will stop taking this medication if I develop itching
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client should never double the dose if a dose is missed. This can lead to an overdose, which can cause serious adverse effects. Instead, the client should take the next dose as scheduled or consult the provider for guidance.
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