Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Lithium Carbonate. When teaching the client about ways to prevent Lithium toxicity, the client should be advised to do which of the following?

• A. Avoid using acetaminophen for headaches.
• B. Restrict intake of foods rich in sodium.
• C. Decrease fluid intake to less than 1,500 mL daily.
• D. Limit aerobic activity in hot weather.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to limit aerobic activity in hot weather. Aerobic activity in hot weather can lead to excessive sweating, potentially causing sodium and water depletion, which can increase the risk of Lithium toxicity. It is important for clients taking Lithium to maintain adequate hydration and sodium levels to prevent toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Avoiding acetaminophen for headaches is not directly related to Lithium toxicity. Restricting intake of foods rich in sodium is not recommended because adequate sodium levels are necessary to prevent Lithium toxicity. Decreasing fluid intake to less than 1,500 mL daily is also not advisable as adequate hydration is important to prevent Lithium toxicity.

2. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Fomepizole
• B. Naloxone
• C. Phytonadione
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adverse effect of prochlorperazine is acute dystonia, which is evidenced by spasms of the muscles in the face, neck, and tongue. Diphenhydramine is used to suppress extrapyramidal effects of prochlorperazine, making it the most appropriate choice to address the client's spasms. Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, not for acute dystonia. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose, not for acute dystonia. Phytonadione is vitamin K, used for the reversal of warfarin, not for acute dystonia.

3. A healthcare provider is planning to administer Ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Administer a concentrated solution.
• B. Infuse the medication over 60 min.
• C. Infuse the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing.
• D. Choose a small peripheral vein for administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin should be infused over 60 minutes to minimize vein irritation and reduce the risk of adverse effects. Administering a concentrated solution can lead to vein irritation and potential complications. Infusing the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing can cause incompatibility issues. Choosing a small peripheral vein may not be suitable for administering Ciprofloxacin, which should be infused through a larger vein to prevent vein irritation and ensure a proper dilution of the medication.

4. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid taking aspirin while on this medication.
• C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Clopidogrel, an antiplatelet medication, the nurse should instruct them to avoid taking aspirin or other NSAIDs. This is because both medications can increase the risk of bleeding when taken together, potentially leading to serious health complications. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to follow this instruction to ensure their safety and well-being while on Clopidogrel. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Clopidogrel with food, avoiding foods high in potassium, or taking the medication at bedtime are not specific instructions related to the safe use of Clopidogrel and do not address the potential interaction with aspirin, which is essential for the client's well-being.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication rapidly over 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client for hypertension during infusion.
• C. Administer a test dose before the full dose.
• D. Monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional is to monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome. Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse reaction to Vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is important to monitor the client for these symptoms to intervene promptly if they occur.

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