Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Lithium Carbonate. When teaching the client about ways to prevent Lithium toxicity, the client should be advised to do which of the following?

• A. Avoid using acetaminophen for headaches.
• B. Restrict intake of foods rich in sodium.
• C. Decrease fluid intake to less than 1,500 mL daily.
• D. Limit aerobic activity in hot weather.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to limit aerobic activity in hot weather. Aerobic activity in hot weather can lead to excessive sweating, potentially causing sodium and water depletion, which can increase the risk of Lithium toxicity. It is important for clients taking Lithium to maintain adequate hydration and sodium levels to prevent toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Avoiding acetaminophen for headaches is not directly related to Lithium toxicity. Restricting intake of foods rich in sodium is not recommended because adequate sodium levels are necessary to prevent Lithium toxicity. Decreasing fluid intake to less than 1,500 mL daily is also not advisable as adequate hydration is important to prevent Lithium toxicity.

2. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Morphine to manage post-operative pain. Which of the following assessments should the healthcare professional perform first?

• A. Urine output
• B. Bowel sounds
• C. Pain level
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The healthcare professional should prioritize assessing the client's respiratory rate because respiratory depression is a life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate allows for early detection of potential complications and timely intervention to prevent harm. Assessing urine output, bowel sounds, and pain level are important but should come after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable as it is the most critical assessment to prevent serious complications associated with opioid use.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?

• A. Bursitis
• B. Sinusitis
• C. Depression
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, as it can worsen the condition. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, and using Oxybutynin can further elevate this pressure, potentially leading to serious complications such as vision impairment or damage to the optic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as bursitis, sinusitis, and depression are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Glaucoma.

5. A client has been prescribed Aspirin for prevention of cardiovascular disease. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?

• A. The client has a decrease in troponin levels.
• B. The client has a regular heart rhythm.
• C. The client experiences a decrease in episodes of angina.
• D. The client's blood pressure remains stable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A decrease in episodes of angina is an indicator of Aspirin's effectiveness in preventing cardiovascular events. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, thereby reducing the formation of blood clots that could lead to angina episodes or more severe cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because troponin levels, heart rhythm, and blood pressure are not direct indicators of Aspirin's effectiveness in preventing cardiovascular events.

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