Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, an infant is suspected to have intussusception. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Currant jelly stools
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Scaphoid abdomen
• D. Frequent stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition where one segment of the intestine telescopes into another, causing obstruction. The classic presentation includes currant jelly stools, which are a mixture of blood and mucus due to the sloughing of the intestinal mucosa. This finding is a result of the compromised blood supply to the affected area and is a key characteristic associated with intussusception.

2. A school nurse is assessing a school-age child�s blood pressure while he is seated in a chair. The child starts to experience a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Clear the immediate area around the child of hazardous objects
• B. loosen the child�s restrictive clothing
• C. assist the child to a side-lying position on the floor
• D. apply an oxygen mask to the child

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The greatest risk to this child is aspiration, occlusion of the airway, and bodily injury from falling out of the chair. The nurse should ease the child down to the floor in a side-lying position immediately.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant brought to the clinic due to diarrhea. The infant is alert but has dry mucous membranes. Which additional assessment data indicates to the healthcare provider that the infant is experiencing an early to moderate stage of dehydration?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Normal fontanels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tachycardia is a common early sign of dehydration in infants, especially when presenting with dry mucous membranes and diarrhea. The increased heart rate is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to dehydration. Bradycardia, increased blood pressure, and normal fontanels are not typically associated with early to moderate dehydration in infants.

4. A patient taking sildenafil (Viagra) asks a nurse what action to take if priapism occurs. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Take an additional half-strength dose of sildenafil
• B. The condition usually resolves in 12 hours or less
• C. Wait until the following day and notify the doctor
• D. Seek emergency help, because permanent damage can occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients experiencing priapism from sildenafil should seek immediate medical attention. Priapism is a serious condition where an erection lasts longer than 4 hours, and if left untreated, it can lead to irreversible damage to the penile tissue, potentially causing permanent erectile dysfunction. Therefore, prompt intervention is crucial to prevent long-term complications.

5. A patient develops hypotension, laryngeal edema, and bronchospasm after eating peanuts. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Diphenhydramine
• D. Hydroxyzine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient is exhibiting symptoms of anaphylaxis triggered by a peanut allergy, a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. The appropriate medication for anaphylaxis is epinephrine. Epinephrine acts quickly to reverse the symptoms by constricting blood vessels, relaxing bronchial muscles, and reducing laryngeal edema, making it the drug of choice for this situation. Promethazine, diphenhydramine, and hydroxyzine are not the first-line treatments for anaphylaxis. Promethazine is an antihistamine with sedative effects, Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine, and Hydroxyzine is also an antihistamine with sedative properties. While these medications can help with mild allergic reactions, they are not as effective or fast-acting as epinephrine in treating the severe manifestations of anaphylaxis.

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