Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, an infant is suspected to have intussusception. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Currant jelly stools
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Scaphoid abdomen
• D. Frequent stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition where one segment of the intestine telescopes into another, causing obstruction. The classic presentation includes currant jelly stools, which are a mixture of blood and mucus due to the sloughing of the intestinal mucosa. This finding is a result of the compromised blood supply to the affected area and is a key characteristic associated with intussusception.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant brought to the clinic due to diarrhea. The infant is alert but has dry mucous membranes. Which additional assessment data indicates to the healthcare provider that the infant is experiencing an early to moderate stage of dehydration?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Normal fontanels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tachycardia is a common early sign of dehydration in infants, especially when presenting with dry mucous membranes and diarrhea. The increased heart rate is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to dehydration. Bradycardia, increased blood pressure, and normal fontanels are not typically associated with early to moderate dehydration in infants.

3. The patient taking spironolactone (Aldactone) makes a statement indicating effective teaching. Which statement shows understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will use salt substitutes to lower my sodium intake
• B. I will increase my intake of foods that are high in potassium
• C. I will call my doctor if I begin having menstrual irregularities
• D. I will take this medication at bedtime each evening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause endocrine effects like menstrual irregularities. Therefore, the patient recognizing the need to report such changes indicates effective teaching. Choices A and B are incorrect as salt substitutes and high-potassium foods should be avoided with spironolactone. Choice D is also incorrect because diuretics, including spironolactone, are ideally taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to nocturia.

4. What is the corrected age of a child born at 30 weeks gestation on May 2, 2014, who is being tested on August 5, 2014?

• A. 3 months
• B. 2 weeks
• C. 2.6 months
• D. 4 weeks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the corrected age of a premature child, you need to adjust for the weeks of prematurity. In this case, the child was born at 30 weeks gestation. From May 2, 2014, to August 5, 2014, is a span of 14 weeks. Subtracting the 30 weeks of gestation from the total time passed (14 weeks) gives the corrected age, which is 14 - 30 = -16 weeks. Since negative weeks are not relevant here, the corrected age is 0 weeks, which is equivalent to 2 weeks. Choice A is incorrect because 3 months is not the correct adjustment for the given scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a fractional value for age, which is not practical in this context. Choice D is incorrect as 4 weeks does not account for the weeks of prematurity.

5. What is the goal of pharmacologic therapy in the treatment of Parkinson�s disease?

• A. To increase the amount of acetylcholine at the pre-synaptic neurons
• B. To reduce the amount of dopamine available in the substantia nigra
• C. To balance cholinergic and dopaminergic activity in the brain
• D. To block dopamine receptors in pre-synaptic and post-synaptic neurons

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Parkinson�s disease results from a decrease in dopaminergic (inhibitory) activity, leaving an imbalance with too much cholinergic (excitatory) activity. With an increase in dopamine, the neurotransmitter activity becomes more balanced, and symptoms are controlled.

Similar Questions